Medications — All Questions

Question 1 of 1136

1. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Clarithromycin?

Biaxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bentyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benicar HCT

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BuSpar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 2 of 1136

2. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Dorzolamide and Timolol?

Cosopt

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Coreg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Coumadin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cozaar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 3 of 1136

3. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Ferrous Fumarate?

Ferretts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Estrace

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elidel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Evista

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 4 of 1136

4. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Acetaminophen and Butalbital?

Fioricet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Flagyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Flexeril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Flomax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 5 of 1136

5. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Polyethylene Glycol-Electrolyte Solution?

GoLYTELY

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glucotrol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glucophage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glucovance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 6 of 1136

6. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Hydrochlorothiazide and Losartan?

Hyzaar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hytrin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Imitrex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inderal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 7 of 1136

7. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Levofloxacin?

Levaquin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lescol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lasix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lexapro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 8 of 1136

8. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Norelgestromin and Ethinyl Estradiol?

Ortho Evra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ortho-Tri-Cyclen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxycontin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patanol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 9 of 1136

9. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Promethazine?

Phenergan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Plavix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pravachol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Premarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 10 of 1136

10. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Pravastatin?

Pravachol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Plavix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenergan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Premarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 11 of 1136

11. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Conjugated Estrogens?

Premarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Plavix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenergan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pravachol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 12 of 1136

12. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Conjugated Estrogens and Medroxyprogesterone?

Prempro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevacid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prilosec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Protonix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 13 of 1136

13. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Metoclopramide?

Reglan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Remeron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Restoril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rhinocort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 14 of 1136

14. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Risperidone?

Risperdal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Seroquel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sinemet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sinequan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 15 of 1136

15. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Carbidopa and Levodopa?

Sinemet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Seroquel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risperdal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sinequan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 16 of 1136

16. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Montelukast?

Singulair

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Skelaxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Solu-Medrol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Soma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 17 of 1136

17. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Carbamazepine?

Tegretol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Synthroid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Strattera

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Temovate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 18 of 1136

18. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for Benzonatate?

Tessalon Perles

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tenormin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tenoretic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Topamax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 19 of 1136

19. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Biaxin?

Clarithromycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Citalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cetrizine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalexin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 20 of 1136

20. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Cartia XT?

Diltiazem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Digoxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dicyclomine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 21 of 1136

21. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Deltasone?

Prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pravastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium Chloride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene Glycolectrolyte

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 22 of 1136

22. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Diflucan?

Fluconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ferrous Fumarate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fentanyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fenofibrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 23 of 1136

23. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Elavil?

Amitriptyline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alprazolam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allopurinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 24 of 1136

24. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Femiron?

Ferrous Fumarate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fentanyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fenofibrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Famotidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 25 of 1136

25. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Flagyl?

Metronidazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoclopramide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methylprednisolone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 26 of 1136

26. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Glucovance?

Glyburide/Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glipizide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gemfibrozil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gabapentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 27 of 1136

27. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for GoLYTELY?

Polyethylene Glycol-Electrolyte Solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Penicillin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Paroxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 28 of 1136

28. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Klor-Con?

Potassium Chloride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene Glycolectrolyte

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Penicillin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 29 of 1136

29. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Levaquin?

Levofloxacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Latanoprost

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lansoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lamotrigine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 30 of 1136

30. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Lexapro?

Escitalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enalapril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duloxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxycycline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 31 of 1136

31. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Macrobid?

Nitrofurantoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nelfinavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 32 of 1136

32. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Macrodantin?

Nitrofurantoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nelfinavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 33 of 1136

33. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Neurontin?

Gabapentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Furosemide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fosinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 34 of 1136

34. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Ortho Evra?

Norelgestromin and Ethinyl Estradiol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nitrofurantoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nelfinavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 35 of 1136

35. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for penicillin V potassium?

Pen VK

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Augmentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keflex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 36 of 1136

36. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Phenergan?

Promethazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primecrolimus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pravastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 37 of 1136

37. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Pravachol?

Pravastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium Chloride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene Glycolectrolyte

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 38 of 1136

38. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Premarin?

Conjugated Estrogens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clopidogrel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clonidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clonazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 39 of 1136

39. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Prempro?

Conjugated Estrogens and Medroxyprogesterone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Conjugated Estrogens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clopidogrel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clonidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 40 of 1136

40. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Risperdal?

Risperidone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ramipril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Raloxifene

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quinine Sulfate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 41 of 1136

41. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Sinemet?

Carbidopa and Levodopa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalexin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Celecoxib

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cefuroxime

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 42 of 1136

42. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Tegretol?

Carbamazepine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalexin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Celecoxib

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cefuroxime

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 43 of 1136

43. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Vibramycin?

Doxycycline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxepin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxazosin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dorzolamide and Timolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 44 of 1136

44. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Wellbutrin?

Bupropion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Budesonide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benztropine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzonatate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 45 of 1136

45. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Zyloprim?

Allopurinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alendronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Albuterol and Ipratropium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Albuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 46 of 1136

46. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin A mostly required for?

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blood coagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neutralizing free radicals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 47 of 1136

47. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B1 mostly required for?

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 48 of 1136

48. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B2 mostly required for?

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 49 of 1136

49. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B3 mostly required for?

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 50 of 1136

50. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B6 mostly required for?

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 51 of 1136

51. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B9 mostly required for?

Production and maintenance of new cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 52 of 1136

52. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin B12 mostly required for?

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blood coagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 53 of 1136

53. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin C mostly required for?

Repairing tissue and preventing cell damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 54 of 1136

54. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin D mostly required for?

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blood coagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 55 of 1136

55. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin D2 mostly required for?

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 56 of 1136

56. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Vitamin D3 mostly required for?

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repairing tissue and preventing cell damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 57 of 1136

57. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Thiamine mostly required for?

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 58 of 1136

58. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Riboflavin mostly required for?

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 59 of 1136

59. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Pyridoxine mostly required for?

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 60 of 1136

60. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Folic Acid mostly required for?

Production and maintenance of new cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 61 of 1136

61. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Cyanocobalamin mostly required for?

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blood coagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting sugars into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 62 of 1136

62. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Ascorbic Acid mostly required for?

Repairing tissue and preventing cell damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reducing levels of amino acids in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 63 of 1136

63. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Ergocalciferol mostly required for?

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of healthy skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone growth and eye function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 64 of 1136

64. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is Cholecalciferol mostly required for?

Absorbing and using calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repairing tissue and preventing cell damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Converting fats into energy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 65 of 1136

65. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for bone growth and eye function?

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B3

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 66 of 1136

66. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for converting sugars into energy?

B1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B3

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 67 of 1136

67. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for promotion of healthy skin?

B2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B3

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 68 of 1136

68. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for converting fats into energy?

B3

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 69 of 1136

69. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for reducing levels of amino acids in the blood?

B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B9

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 70 of 1136

70. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for production and maintenance of new cells?

B9

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 71 of 1136

71. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for production of red blood cells?

B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B9

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 72 of 1136

72. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for repairing tissue and preventing cell damage?

C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B9

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 73 of 1136

73. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What Vitamin is mostly required for absorbing and using calcium?

D

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

E

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 74 of 1136

74. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for bone growth and eye function?

Retinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thiamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Riboflavin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 75 of 1136

75. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for converting sugars into energy?

Thiamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Retinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Riboflavin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 76 of 1136

76. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for promotion of healthy skin?

Riboflavin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Retinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thiamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 77 of 1136

77. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for reducing levels of amino acids in the blood?

Pyridoxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyanocobalamin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ascorbic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 78 of 1136

78. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for production and maintenance of new cells?

Folic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pyridoxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyanocobalamin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ascorbic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 79 of 1136

79. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for production of red blood cells?

Cyanocobalamin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pyridoxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ascorbic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 80 of 1136

80. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for repairing tissue and preventing cell damage?

Ascorbic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pyridoxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic Acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyanocobalamin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 81 of 1136

81. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is mostly required for neutralizing free radicals?

Tocopherol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cholecalciferol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phylloquinone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Menaquinone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 82 of 1136

82. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Angina?

Chest pain due to an insufficient supply of blood to the heart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A sudden loss of consciousness resulting when the rupture or occlusion of a blood vessel leads to oxygen lack in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The destruction of heart tissue resulting from obstruction of the blood supply to the heart muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 83 of 1136

83. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Hypertension?

High blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chest pain due to an insufficient supply of blood to the heart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A sudden loss of consciousness resulting when the rupture or occlusion of a blood vessel leads to oxygen lack in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The destruction of heart tissue resulting from obstruction of the blood supply to the heart muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 84 of 1136

84. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Stroke?

A sudden loss of consciousness resulting when the rupture or occlusion of a blood vessel leads to oxygen lack in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chest pain due to an insufficient supply of blood to the heart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The destruction of heart tissue resulting from obstruction of the blood supply to the heart muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 85 of 1136

85. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Myocardial Infarction?

The destruction of heart tissue resulting from obstruction of the blood supply to the heart muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chest pain due to an insufficient supply of blood to the heart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A sudden loss of consciousness resulting when the rupture or occlusion of a blood vessel leads to oxygen lack in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 86 of 1136

86. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Bipolar Disease?

A disorder involving periods of mania and depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety disorder characterized by recurring severe panic attacks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 87 of 1136

87. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Anxiety?

A relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder involving periods of mania and depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety disorder characterized by recurring severe panic attacks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 88 of 1136

88. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Constipation?

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder involving periods of mania and depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety disorder characterized by recurring severe panic attacks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 89 of 1136

89. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Panic Disorders?

Anxiety disorder characterized by recurring severe panic attacks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder involving periods of mania and depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 90 of 1136

90. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Asthma?

An inflammatory disorder of the airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An increase in size of the prostate in middle-aged and elderly men

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A common and often deadly infectious disease caused by mycobacteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 91 of 1136

91. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy?

An increase in size of the prostate in middle-aged and elderly men

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammatory disorder of the airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A common and often deadly infectious disease caused by mycobacteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 92 of 1136

92. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Bronchitis?

An inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammatory disorder of the airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An increase in size of the prostate in middle-aged and elderly men

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A common and often deadly infectious disease caused by mycobacteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 93 of 1136

93. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Tuberculosis?

A common and often deadly infectious disease caused by mycobacteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammatory disorder of the airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An increase in size of the prostate in middle-aged and elderly men

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 94 of 1136

94. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Epilepsy?

A disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of consciousness and convulsions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excess body fat accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A polygenic disease characterized by abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 95 of 1136

95. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Obesity?

Excess body fat accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of consciousness and convulsions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A polygenic disease characterized by abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 96 of 1136

96. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Diabetes?

A polygenic disease characterized by abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of consciousness and convulsions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excess body fat accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 97 of 1136

97. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Emphysema?

An abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of consciousness and convulsions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excess body fat accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A polygenic disease characterized by abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 98 of 1136

98. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease?

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The presence of excess lipoproteins in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disease where the heart can no longer pump enough blood to the rest of the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The condition of having an overactive thyroid gland

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 99 of 1136

99. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Hyperlipidemia?

The presence of excess lipoproteins in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disease where the heart can no longer pump enough blood to the rest of the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The condition of having an overactive thyroid gland

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 100 of 1136

100. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure?

A disease where the heart can no longer pump enough blood to the rest of the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The presence of excess lipoproteins in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The condition of having an overactive thyroid gland

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 101 of 1136

101. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Hyperthyroidism?

The condition of having an overactive thyroid gland

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The presence of excess lipoproteins in the blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A disease where the heart can no longer pump enough blood to the rest of the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 102 of 1136

102. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Depression?

A psychiatric disorder caused by changes in neurotransmitters in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An affective disorder in which the victim tends to respond excessively and sometimes violently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inability to sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 103 of 1136

103. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Mania?

An affective disorder in which the victim tends to respond excessively and sometimes violently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A psychiatric disorder caused by changes in neurotransmitters in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inability to sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 104 of 1136

104. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Insomnia?

An inability to sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A psychiatric disorder caused by changes in neurotransmitters in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An affective disorder in which the victim tends to respond excessively and sometimes violently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 105 of 1136

105. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Schizophrenia?

A mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A psychiatric disorder caused by changes in neurotransmitters in the brain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An affective disorder in which the victim tends to respond excessively and sometimes violently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inability to sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 106 of 1136

106. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Urinary Tract Infections?

Bacterial infection that affects any part of the urinary tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A circumscribed inflammatory and often suppurating lesion on the skin or an internal mucous surface resulting in necrosis of tissue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 107 of 1136

107. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What are the characteristics of Ulcers?

A circumscribed inflammatory and often suppurating lesion on the skin or an internal mucous surface resulting in necrosis of tissue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bacterial infection that affects any part of the urinary tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 108 of 1136

108. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by chest pain due to an insufficient supply of blood to the heart?

Angina

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stroke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myocardial Infarction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 109 of 1136

109. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by high blood pressure?

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angina

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stroke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myocardial Infarction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 110 of 1136

110. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a sudden loss of consciousness resulting when the rupture or occlusion of a blood vessel leads to oxygen lack in the brain?

Stroke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angina

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myocardial Infarction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 111 of 1136

111. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by the destruction of heart tissue resulting from obstruction of the blood supply to the heart muscle?

Myocardial Infarction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angina

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stroke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 112 of 1136

112. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a disorder involving periods of mania and depression?

Bipolar Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Panic Disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 113 of 1136

113. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness?

Anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bipolar Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Panic Disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 114 of 1136

114. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by irregular and infrequent or difficult evacuation of the bowels?

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bipolar Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Panic Disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 115 of 1136

115. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by anxiety disorder characterized by recurring severe panic attacks?

Panic Disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bipolar Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 116 of 1136

116. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an inflammatory disorder of the airways?

Asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bronchitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 117 of 1136

117. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an increase in size of the prostate in middle-aged and elderly men?

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bronchitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 118 of 1136

118. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs?

Bronchitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 119 of 1136

119. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a common and often deadly infectious disease caused by mycobacteria?

Tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bronchitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 120 of 1136

120. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of consciousness and convulsions?

Epilepsy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Obesity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emphysema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 121 of 1136

121. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by excess body fat accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health?

Obesity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epilepsy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emphysema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 122 of 1136

122. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a polygenic disease characterized by abnormally high glucose levels in the blood?

Diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epilepsy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Obesity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emphysema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 123 of 1136

123. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function?

Emphysema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epilepsy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Obesity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 124 of 1136

124. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by chronic symptoms or mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of stomach acid to the esophagus?

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperlipidemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 125 of 1136

125. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by the presence of excess lipoproteins in the blood?

Hyperlipidemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 126 of 1136

126. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a disease where the heart can no longer pump enough blood to the rest of the body?

Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperlipidemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 127 of 1136

127. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by the condition of having an overactive thyroid gland?

Hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperlipidemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 128 of 1136

128. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a psychiatric disorder caused by changes in neurotransmitters in the brain?

Depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mania

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schizophrenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 129 of 1136

129. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an affective disorder in which the victim tends to respond excessively and sometimes violently?

Mania

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schizophrenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 130 of 1136

130. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by an inability to sleep?

Insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mania

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schizophrenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 131 of 1136

131. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality?

Schizophrenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mania

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 132 of 1136

132. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by bacterial infection that affects any part of the urinary tract?

Urinary Tract Infections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ulcers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 133 of 1136

133. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which disease is characterized by a circumscribed inflammatory and often suppurating lesion on the skin or an internal mucous surface resulting in necrosis of tissue?

Ulcers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urinary Tract Infections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 134 of 1136

134. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which dispersion can be described as a two phase system where a liquid contains solid particles?

Suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emulsion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lotion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 135 of 1136

135. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which of the following is not a dispersion?

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ointment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 136 of 1136

136. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle?

Dispersion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transdermal Product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhalant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 137 of 1136

137. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a gas or vapor intended to be administered through the mouth or nose?

Inhalant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispersion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transdermal Product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 138 of 1136

138. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a medication that is delivered into the bloodstream through the skin?

Transdermal Product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhalant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispersion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 139 of 1136

139. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is not a disadvantage of using liquids to administer medication?

Does not take effect as quickly as solid dosage forms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bulkier than solid dosage forms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Require preservatives to prevent formation of mold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Incompatibility with other solutions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 140 of 1136

140. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a solid dosage form prepared through compression or molding?

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Powders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Plasters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 141 of 1136

141. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What can be described as particles that release bubbles of carbon dioxide when added to water?

Effervescent Salts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 142 of 1136

142. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What can be described as medication implanted under the skin to be absorbed over long periods of time?

Pellets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Effervescent Salts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 143 of 1136

143. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a flavored solid dosage form that dissolves in the mouth?

Lozenges

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pellets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Effervescent Salts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 144 of 1136

144. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What can be described as a solid dosage form administered through the rectum, vagina, or urethra?

Suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Powders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Plasters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lozenges

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 145 of 1136

145. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Standard Compressed, Sugar-Coated, Sublingual, and Chewable are all forms of what solid dosage form?

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Powders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pellets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 146 of 1136

146. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which of the following is not a solid dosage form?

Aromatic Waters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Powders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 147 of 1136

147. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following dosages does not delay-release?

Sublingual Tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prolonged Release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Timed Release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continuous Action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 148 of 1136

148. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which solution can be described as a volatile solution containing components that have a smell?

Aromatic Waters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tinctures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Syrups

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spirits

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 149 of 1136

149. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which solution can be described as a flavored, sweetened, and clear hydroalcoholic solution?

Elixir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Collodion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aromatic Waters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tinctures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 150 of 1136

150. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which solution can be described as a solution containing the same salt concentration as normal body cells?

Isotonic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Douche

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elixir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 151 of 1136

151. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which solution can be described as a thick viscous liquid containing large amounts of sugar?

Syrups

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spirits

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liniments

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isotonic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 152 of 1136

152. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which is not a characteristic of Transdermal Products?

Provides therapy to chronic conditions affecting skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Convenient system to regulate drug concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Administered through the skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Absorbed directly into the bloodstream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 153 of 1136

153. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the State Boards of Pharmacy responsible for?

Ensuring standards are met for licensing pharmacists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ensuring pharmaceuticals and food are safe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enforcing the Controlled Substances Act

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Taxing of alcohol in hospitals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 154 of 1136

154. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A therapeutic equivalent of a drug has all but which of the following characteristics?

Different chemical composition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Same therapeutic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Same pharmacokinetic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All are characteristics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 155 of 1136

155. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A therapeutic substitution of a drug has all but which of the following characteristics?

Same chemical composition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Similar pharmacologic activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Similar therapeutic activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All are characteristics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 156 of 1136

156. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following is required before controlled substances can be destroyed?

Form 41

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Form 222

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Form 111

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSDS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 157 of 1136

157. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following is required before Schedule II substances can be destroyed?

Form 41

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Form 222

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Form 111

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSDS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 158 of 1136

158. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

How long must the copy of a Form 41 be kept after destruction of pharmaceuticals?

2 years

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 year

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

3 years

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 years

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 159 of 1136

159. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What does MSDS stand for?

Material Safety Data Sheet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Material Safety Drug Settings

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Material Service Data Safety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Material Substance Data Sheet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 160 of 1136

160. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What does a MSDS provide?

Information on hazardous materials

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Standards for labeling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Requirements for distribution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Information on controlled substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 161 of 1136

161. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

When must a MSDS be provided?

When dealing with hazardous substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

When dealing with controlled substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

When dealing with collodions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

When dealing with experimental substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 162 of 1136

162. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the advantage of purchasing pharmaceuticals from drug manufacturers?

Bulk purchases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emergency deliveries

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Automated ordering systems

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minimal paper work

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 163 of 1136

163. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the advantage of purchasing pharmaceuticals from a wholesaler?

All manufacturers stocked in one location

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bulk purchases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cost savings

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minimal paper work

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 164 of 1136

164. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What method of replenishment uses a range to identify quantities to stock?

Minimum and Maximum

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Top and Bottom

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High and Low

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Over and Under

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 165 of 1136

165. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following is formed when a pharmacy agrees to purchase a majority of its goods from a wholesaler?

Prime Vendor Agreement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Group Purchasing Agreement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wholesaler Agreement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Formulary Agreement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 166 of 1136

166. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following refers to a multiple dose card of unit-doses?

All of the above

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Modified unit-dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blister card

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Punch card

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 167 of 1136

167. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

The expiration date of repackaged goods cannot be longer than?

6 months

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

3 months

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 month

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

12 months

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 168 of 1136

168. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is not required on the label of repackaged goods?

Date of repackaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Generic name of drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Manufacturer's name

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 169 of 1136

169. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What must be included on the label of repackaged goods?

Generic name of drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Date of repackaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

DEA number

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quantity repackaged

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 170 of 1136

170. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is not required on a repackaging log?

Wholesaler

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Date of repackaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Initials of licensed pharmacist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quantity repackaged

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 171 of 1136

171. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What must be included on a repackaging log?

Date of repackaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wholesaler

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Manager's initials

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Unit price

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 172 of 1136

172. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is required for an easy-open container?

Patient's signature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Physician's signature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pharmacist's signature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

DEA agent's signature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 173 of 1136

173. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following is a list of medicines approved to be prescribed under a particular contract?

Formulary

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Catalogue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Registry

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Guide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 174 of 1136

174. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following creates formularies?

PandT

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

DEA

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

FDA

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

GPO

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 175 of 1136

175. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following determines formularies for reimbursement?

Third party provider

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

GPO

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

FDA

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PandT

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 176 of 1136

176. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Who do third party providers create formularies for?

Managed care members

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pharmacists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Physicians

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nurses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 177 of 1136

177. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antibiotic?

Zovirax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primaxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Garamycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zithromax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 178 of 1136

178. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is used to inhibit fungal cytochrome P450?

Fluconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Famciclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Losartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 179 of 1136

179. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antifungal?

Fosinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Miconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ketoconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 180 of 1136

180. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antiviral?

Starlix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Denavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zovirax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Relenza

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 181 of 1136

181. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is used to limit the progression of HIV?

Ziagen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Loprox

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zoladex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kerlone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 182 of 1136

182. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antiretroviral?

Platinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ziagen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sustiva

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trizivir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 183 of 1136

183. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is used to block the release of histamine?

Fexofenadine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sertraline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lorazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 184 of 1136

184. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antihistamine?

Platinol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allegra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dimetapp

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atarax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 185 of 1136

185. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antianxiety?

Sustiva

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Xanax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BuSpar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 186 of 1136

186. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antidepressant?

Robitussin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Effexor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Celexa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prozac

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 187 of 1136

187. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Insomnia?

Zovirax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lunesta

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rozerem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ativan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 188 of 1136

188. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Psychosis?

Foradil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Seroquel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Abilify

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Invega

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 189 of 1136

189. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antipsychotic?

Vasotec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prolixin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stelazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zyprexa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 190 of 1136

190. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Epilepsy?

Blenoxane

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tegretol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Luminal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 191 of 1136

191. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Anticonvulsant?

Zymar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Klonopin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keppra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 192 of 1136

192. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Parkinson’s Disease?

Rhinocort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cogentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Larodopa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Comtan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 193 of 1136

193. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antiparkinsonian?

Zymar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Eldepryl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cogentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Artane

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 194 of 1136

194. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Multiple Sclerosis?

Zerit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lioresal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zanaflex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Betaseron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 195 of 1136

195. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Alzheimer’s Disease?

Vibramycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aricept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Namenda

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gingko

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 196 of 1136

196. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Asthma?

Apokyn

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atrovent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Azmacort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advair

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 197 of 1136

197. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Bronchodilator?

Cinoxacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Abuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tiotropium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Salmeterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 198 of 1136

198. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Corticosteroid?

Ciclesonide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beclomethasone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triamcinolone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 199 of 1136

199. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Tuberculosis?

Avapro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capastat

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Priftin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Floxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 200 of 1136

200. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to neutralize stomach acid?

Aluminum

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aluminum hydroxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aluminum hydroxide – magnesium hydroxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium trisulcate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 201 of 1136

201. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Stalevo

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

AcipHex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nexium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prilosec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 202 of 1136

202. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Nexium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lioresal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Betaseron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Avonex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 203 of 1136

203. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is classified as a Proton Pump Inhibitors?

Nexium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lotensin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Monopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vasotec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 204 of 1136

204. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Proton Pump Inhibitors?

Ciclesonide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Esomeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 205 of 1136

205. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used as an antidiarrheal?

Advair

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lomotil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Imodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kaopectate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 206 of 1136

206. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

In which classification does diphenoxylate with atropine belong?

Antidiarrheal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antianxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antipsychotic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticonvulsant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 207 of 1136

207. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antidiarrheal?

Sonata

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lomotil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Imodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kaopectate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 208 of 1136

208. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat constipation?

Lomotil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Surfak

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dulcolax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephulac

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 209 of 1136

209. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Ace Inhibitors?

Corgard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prinivil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Altace

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Accupril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 210 of 1136

210. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Beta Blocker?

Vasotec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lopressor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Betapace

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inderal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 211 of 1136

211. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not used to block angiotensin II action?

Lotensin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atacand

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cozaar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Avapro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 212 of 1136

212. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is used to block angiotensin II action?

Benicar

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kerlone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Betapace

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Corgard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 213 of 1136

213. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is classified as a Calcium Channel Blocker?

Norvasc

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diuril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aldactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Esidrix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 214 of 1136

214. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Calcium Channel Blocker?

Sectral

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cardene

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Procardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 215 of 1136

215. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Antiplatelet?

Sectral

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Retavase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ticlid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TNKase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 216 of 1136

216. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following drugs is not a Anticoagulant?

ReoPro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Arixtra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Innohep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refludan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 217 of 1136

217. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for Tylenol with Codeine?

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 218 of 1136

218. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for Codeine?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 219 of 1136

219. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for Duragesic?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 220 of 1136

220. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for Dolophine?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 221 of 1136

221. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for OxyContin?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 222 of 1136

222. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for acetaminophen with codeine?

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 223 of 1136

223. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for fentanyl?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 224 of 1136

224. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for meperidine?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 225 of 1136

225. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for methadone?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 226 of 1136

226. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for oxycodone?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 227 of 1136

227. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for oxycodone-aspirin?

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 228 of 1136

228. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

What is the controlled substance schedule for pentazocine?

IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

III

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 229 of 1136

229. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What is therapeutic duplication?

Prescribing two or more drugs from the same pharmacological class

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Switching a brand-name drug to its generic equivalent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prescribing a drug that interacts with another drug the patient takes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Filling the same prescription at two different pharmacies simultaneously

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 230 of 1136

230. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which pair of medications represents a therapeutic duplication?

Lisinopril and enalapril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril and amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin and glipizide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole and sucralfate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 231 of 1136

231. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which type of alert is generated by pharmacy software when therapeutic duplication is detected during order entry?

Drug utilization review (DUR) alert

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug recall alert

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Formulary restriction alert

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prior authorization alert

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 232 of 1136

232. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What is the key difference between therapeutic duplication and therapeutic substitution?

Duplication involves adding a same-class drug, while substitution involves replacing one drug with a same-class alternative

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duplication requires prescriber approval, while substitution does not

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duplication involves brand drugs only, while substitution involves generic drugs only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duplication is always harmful, while substitution is always safe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 233 of 1136

233. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which drug class is commonly involved in therapeutic duplication errors in the pharmacy setting?

Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aminoglycoside antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin and metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 234 of 1136

234. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking both fluoxetine and sertraline would be an example of which type of medication safety concern?

Therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic substitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contraindicated drug combination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Generic substitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 235 of 1136

235. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What is a primary consequence of undetected therapeutic duplication?

Increased risk of additive side effects and toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreased effectiveness of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Automatic rejection by insurance claims processing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mandatory reporting to the state board of pharmacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 236 of 1136

236. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician enters a new prescription for atorvastatin 40 mg for a patient already taking rosuvastatin 10 mg. What should the technician do?

Alert the pharmacist about the potential therapeutic duplication before processing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense atorvastatin and discontinue the rosuvastatin automatically

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber directly to request clarification

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process the prescription since both statins are commonly used together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 237 of 1136

237. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

During prescription entry, the pharmacy software generates a DUR alert for therapeutic duplication on a new prescription for omeprazole 20 mg. The patient’s profile shows an active prescription for pantoprazole 40 mg. What is the technician’s best course of action?

Refer the DUR alert to the pharmacist for clinical review

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Override the alert because the doses are different

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the pantoprazole and process the omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Call the prescriber and request a change to a different drug class

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 238 of 1136

238. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient presents prescriptions from two different providers: one for alprazolam 0.5 mg and another for lorazepam 1 mg. Which concern should the pharmacy technician recognize?

Therapeutic duplication because both medications are benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug-food interaction requiring dietary counseling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Incorrect dosage form requiring clarification with the prescriber

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insurance formulary exclusion requiring prior authorization

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 239 of 1136

239. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication profile includes ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily. A new prescription arrives for naproxen 500 mg twice daily. What type of DUR alert should the technician expect?

Therapeutic duplication alert for concurrent NSAID use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug-drug interaction alert for serotonin syndrome risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maximum daily dose exceeded alert for ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duplicate prescription alert for the same medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 240 of 1136

240. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which scenario would NOT trigger a therapeutic duplication alert in pharmacy software?

A patient taking metoprolol and lisinopril for blood pressure management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient taking both escitalopram and citalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient taking both omeprazole and lansoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient taking both atorvastatin and simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 241 of 1136

241. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician notices a patient is picking up both a prescription NSAID and has recently purchased OTC ibuprofen from the pharmacy. What should the technician do?

Notify the pharmacist about the potential therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refuse to sell the OTC ibuprofen to the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Counsel the patient about the risk of taking two NSAIDs together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Document the OTC purchase and proceed with filling the prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 242 of 1136

242. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A hospital pharmacy technician enters a new admission order for ramipril 5 mg daily. The patient’s home medication list includes benazepril 10 mg daily. Which action is most appropriate?

Flag the therapeutic duplication for the pharmacist to review before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense ramipril since it was ordered by the admitting physician

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Substitute benazepril for ramipril since the patient was already taking it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the physician directly to clarify which ACE inhibitor to continue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 243 of 1136

243. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which situation most commonly leads to unintentional therapeutic duplication in community pharmacy?

A patient seeing multiple prescribers who are unaware of each other's prescriptions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient requesting early refills on a chronic medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A pharmacist performing generic substitution on a brand-name prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient transferring prescriptions between two pharmacies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 244 of 1136

244. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A technician is entering a prescription for citalopram 20 mg for a patient whose profile shows an active prescription for paroxetine 20 mg. Beyond therapeutic duplication, what additional safety concern exists with concurrent use of two SSRIs?

Increased risk of serotonin syndrome from additive serotonergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of hepatotoxicity from competing liver metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of QT prolongation from both drugs being beta-blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of respiratory depression from CNS depressant effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 245 of 1136

245. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A technician processing prescriptions for a new patient enters both diazepam 5 mg and clonazepam 1 mg. The pharmacy system generates a therapeutic duplication alert. Which drug class do both medications belong to?

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Barbiturates

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Skeletal muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 246 of 1136

246. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which prospective review process is designed to catch therapeutic duplications before a prescription is dispensed?

Prospective drug utilization review during order entry

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Retrospective claims analysis performed by insurance auditors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Medication therapy management conducted during annual reviews

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

State prescription drug monitoring program database checks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 247 of 1136

247. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician discovers that a patient has active prescriptions for both OTC omeprazole and prescription esomeprazole. How should the technician categorize this finding?

Therapeutic duplication because both are proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acceptable therapy because one is OTC and the other is prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Generic substitution because both drugs have the same active ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Formulary interchange because the prescriber intended a therapeutic switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 248 of 1136

248. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile containing amlodipine 10 mg daily, losartan 50 mg daily, metformin 1000 mg twice daily, and valsartan 160 mg daily. Which pair of medications represents a therapeutic duplication?

Losartan and valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine and losartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin and valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine and metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 249 of 1136

249. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication list includes: atorvastatin 40 mg daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and pravastatin 20 mg at bedtime. The pharmacy system does not generate an alert. What should the technician do?

Inform the pharmacist about the potential therapeutic duplication of atorvastatin and pravastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process both statin prescriptions because the system did not flag a concern

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the pravastatin and continue atorvastatin at the higher dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber to request a therapeutic substitution to rosuvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 250 of 1136

250. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient receives a prescription for duloxetine from a psychiatrist while already taking venlafaxine prescribed by a primary care physician. The pharmacy technician recognizes both are SNRIs. Why is this therapeutic duplication particularly concerning?

Additive serotonergic and noradrenergic effects increase the risk of serotonin syndrome and hypertensive crisis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications require prior authorization from the same insurance plan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are available only as brand-name products, increasing cost

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications require renal dose adjustments that cannot be combined

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 251 of 1136

251. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A long-term care facility patient’s medication administration record includes celecoxib 200 mg daily for arthritis and meloxicam 15 mg daily for back pain, prescribed by two different physicians. What is the most significant clinical risk of this therapeutic duplication?

Significantly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and renal damage from combined NSAID use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of hypoglycemia requiring frequent blood glucose monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of respiratory depression requiring pulse oximetry monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of hepatic encephalopathy requiring ammonia level monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 252 of 1136

252. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician processes a new prescription for escitalopram 10 mg for a patient currently taking fluoxetine 40 mg. The pharmacist contacts the prescriber, who states the patient should taper off fluoxetine while starting escitalopram. How should this situation be handled in the pharmacy system?

Process both prescriptions with a documented pharmacist note explaining the approved cross-taper plan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately discontinue the fluoxetine profile and only dispense escitalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Override the therapeutic duplication alert permanently for this patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refuse to dispense either medication until the fluoxetine taper is complete

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 253 of 1136

253. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which of the following is an available strength of metformin immediate-release tablets?

850 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

600 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

750 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1200 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 254 of 1136

254. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What route of administration does the abbreviation “SL” indicate?

Under the tongue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Into the muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Under the skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Into the vein

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 255 of 1136

255. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which insulin type has the fastest onset of action?

Insulin lispro (Humalog)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glargine (Lantus)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NPH insulin (Humulin N)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Regular insulin (Humulin R)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 256 of 1136

256. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What is the primary reason extended-release tablets should not be crushed?

Crushing destroys the slow-release mechanism and causes dose dumping

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crushing makes the medication ineffective and inactive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crushing changes the drug into a different chemical compound

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crushing causes the medication to become a controlled substance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 257 of 1136

257. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

After reconstitution, amoxicillin oral suspension should be stored under which condition?

Refrigerated and discarded after 14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At room temperature and discarded after 30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Frozen and thawed before each use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerated and discarded after 90 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 258 of 1136

258. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Lisinopril is commercially available in which of the following strengths?

40 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

25 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

50 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 259 of 1136

259. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which dosage form is designed to be inserted rectally?

Suppository

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Troche

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lozenge

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Capsule

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 260 of 1136

260. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for amoxicillin 400 mg/5 mL suspension, 150 mL. The pharmacy carries amoxicillin powder for reconstitution labeled 400 mg/5 mL (150 mL bottle). What auxiliary label should the technician apply?

Shake well, refrigerate, and discard after 14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store at room temperature and protect from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take on an empty stomach only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Do not refrigerate and use within 7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 261 of 1136

261. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient picks up a prescription for omeprazole 20 mg delayed-release capsules. Which counseling point is most appropriate for the pharmacy technician to reinforce?

Swallow the capsule whole; do not crush or chew

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crush the capsule and mix with orange juice

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Open the capsule and dissolve contents in hot water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chew the capsule thoroughly before swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 262 of 1136

262. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed fentanyl transdermal patches 25 mcg/hr. Which route of administration does this represent?

Topical

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Subcutaneous

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Intramuscular

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 263 of 1136

263. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber orders nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL PRN chest pain. How should the patient take this medication?

Place the tablet under the tongue when chest pain occurs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chew the tablet and swallow with food

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply the tablet to the inside of the cheek

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 264 of 1136

264. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus) 20 units at bedtime. What is the expected duration of action for this insulin?

Approximately 24 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 4 to 6 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 8 to 12 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 2 to 3 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 265 of 1136

265. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient receives a prescription for albuterol metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with instructions to use a spacer. What is the primary benefit of using a spacer with an MDI?

It improves drug delivery to the lungs by reducing the need for precise coordination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It increases the total amount of drug in the canister

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It converts the medication into a nebulized solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It eliminates the need for priming the inhaler

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 266 of 1136

266. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A technician receives a prescription for azithromycin oral suspension 200 mg/5 mL. After reconstitution with the appropriate volume of water, how should this product be stored?

At room temperature and discarded after 10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerated and discarded after 14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Frozen until ready for use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerated and discarded after 30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 267 of 1136

267. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient asks why their metformin ER 500 mg tablets look different from their previous metformin 500 mg tablets. What is the most appropriate explanation?

The ER formulation is designed to release medication slowly and is a different product than immediate-release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The manufacturer made an error with the tablet appearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The ER version contains a higher dose of the same active ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The ER version is a brand-name product while the previous was generic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 268 of 1136

268. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription reads: “Apply triamcinolone 0.1% cream to affected area BID.” Which route of administration applies to this medication?

Topical

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ophthalmic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 269 of 1136

269. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for levothyroxine 88 mcg tablets. The patient mentions they were told to take it a specific way. Which administration instruction is correct for levothyroxine?

Take on an empty stomach, 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take immediately after a high-fat meal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take with a full glass of milk at bedtime

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take with an antacid to reduce stomach upset

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 270 of 1136

270. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient brings in a prescription for ciprofloxacin otic drops. To which body site should this medication be administered?

The ear

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The eye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The nose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The mouth

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 271 of 1136

271. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient currently takes metoprolol succinate ER 100 mg once daily. The prescriber writes a new order for metoprolol tartrate 50 mg BID and asks the technician to discontinue the ER product. What should the technician recognize about this change?

Both regimens deliver a similar total daily dose but the tartrate requires twice-daily dosing due to shorter duration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tartrate formulation is twice as potent, so the dose should be reduced further

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The succinate and tartrate salts are interchangeable and no change is needed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tartrate formulation should only be taken once daily like the succinate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 272 of 1136

272. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy receives a prescription for NPH insulin and regular insulin to be given together before breakfast. The patient asks why the vial of NPH insulin looks cloudy while the regular insulin is clear. What is the correct explanation?

NPH insulin contains a protamine suspension that makes it cloudy, while regular insulin is a clear solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The NPH insulin has expired and should be returned to the pharmacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The regular insulin was stored improperly and lost its cloudiness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NPH insulin contains a higher concentration that causes the cloudy appearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 273 of 1136

273. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician notices a prescription for diltiazem CD 240 mg once daily being filled with diltiazem immediate-release 240 mg tablets. Why is this a potential safety concern?

The immediate-release form will release the full dose rapidly instead of slowly over 24 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The immediate-release form contains a different active ingredient than the CD form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The CD formulation is only available as a generic product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The immediate-release form is not absorbed as well as the CD form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 274 of 1136

274. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A technician is reconstituting cephalexin 250 mg/5 mL oral suspension and accidentally adds too much water, resulting in a final volume greater than indicated on the label. How does this error affect the medication?

The concentration will be lower than labeled, resulting in underdosing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The concentration will be higher than labeled, resulting in overdosing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication will be unaffected because the total drug amount remains the same

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The extra water will cause the drug to degrade immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 275 of 1136

275. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient uses a fluticasone MDI and reports developing oral thrush. Which administration technique is most likely to reduce this side effect?

Rinsing the mouth with water and spitting after each use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increasing the dose to overcome the infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Holding the breath for 30 seconds after inhalation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shaking the inhaler for 60 seconds before each use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 276 of 1136

276. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber orders amlodipine 7.5 mg PO daily. The pharmacy stocks amlodipine in 2.5 mg, 5 mg, and 10 mg tablets. What is the most appropriate way for the technician to fill this prescription?

Dispense one 5 mg tablet and one 2.5 mg tablet to be taken together daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cut a 10 mg tablet in half and dispense as 5 mg doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense three 2.5 mg tablets and instruct the patient to take them at different times

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber because 7.5 mg is not a valid dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 277 of 1136

277. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient picking up a prescription for latanoprost ophthalmic solution asks if it needs to be refrigerated. What is the correct storage guidance?

Refrigerate the unopened bottle; once opened, it may be stored at room temperature for up to 6 weeks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store at room temperature at all times before and after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerate at all times and discard if left at room temperature for any period

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Freeze until ready to use, then thaw and use within 24 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 278 of 1136

278. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which side effect is most commonly associated with ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?

Persistent dry cough

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic diarrhea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Weight gain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Photosensitivity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 279 of 1136

279. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which adverse effect is the primary reason opioid medications are commonly prescribed with a stool softener?

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nausea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urinary retention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Respiratory depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 280 of 1136

280. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which drug class carries a black box warning for increased risk of tendon rupture and tendinitis?

Fluoroquinolones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Macrolides

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tetracyclines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aminoglycosides

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 281 of 1136

281. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which gastrointestinal side effect is most frequently reported by patients starting metformin therapy?

Diarrhea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Constipation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Esophageal reflux

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral thrush

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 282 of 1136

282. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which serious adverse effect is associated with statin therapy and presents as unexplained muscle pain with elevated creatine kinase levels?

Rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myasthenia gravis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral neuropathy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 283 of 1136

283. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient with a documented penicillin allergy has an estimated cross-reactivity risk with which drug class?

Cephalosporins

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoroquinolones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aminoglycosides

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tetracyclines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 284 of 1136

284. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which class of antidepressants carries a black box warning regarding increased suicidality in children, adolescents, and young adults?

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atypical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 285 of 1136

285. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking atorvastatin reports new onset of diffuse muscle aches and dark-colored urine. Which laboratory test should be checked immediately?

Creatine kinase (CK) level

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hemoglobin A1c

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thyroid stimulating hormone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Complete blood count with differential

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 286 of 1136

286. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 5.8 and no signs of active bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial action for the pharmacy technician?

Alert the pharmacist immediately about the critical lab value

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to take an extra dose of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient take a vitamin K supplement from the shelf

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient the result is within normal limits

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 287 of 1136

287. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient picking up a new prescription for sertraline asks the pharmacy technician why they might experience decreased sexual interest. Which response is most appropriate?

Refer the patient to the pharmacist for counseling about medication side effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Explain that sexual dysfunction is temporary and will resolve within one week

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient discontinue the medication if the side effect is bothersome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient this side effect is not associated with their new medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 288 of 1136

288. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient receiving clozapine has not had a required blood test in over two weeks. What is the primary adverse effect this monitoring is designed to detect?

Agranulocytosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 289 of 1136

289. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue shortly after starting therapy. This reaction is best described as which type of adverse effect?

Angioedema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact dermatitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serum sickness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tardive dyskinesia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 290 of 1136

290. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on metformin is scheduled for a CT scan with iodinated contrast dye. Why should metformin be temporarily discontinued around the time of the procedure?

To reduce the risk of lactic acidosis caused by contrast-induced kidney impairment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent hypoglycemia during the fasting period required for the scan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To avoid a drug interaction between metformin and the contrast dye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent an allergic reaction to the iodinated contrast agent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 291 of 1136

291. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking carbamazepine develops a widespread blistering rash with mucosal involvement. Which severe dermatologic reaction should be suspected?

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug-induced lupus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maculopapular drug eruption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Psoriasis flare

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 292 of 1136

292. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient reports stopping their statin medication because of muscle soreness. Which term best describes this common side effect that led to nonadherence?

Myalgia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myocarditis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Arthralgia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myasthenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 293 of 1136

293. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient with a documented sulfa drug allergy presents a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Flag the allergy alert and notify the pharmacist before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the medication since diuretics are unrelated to sulfa antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Substitute the medication with a non-sulfa diuretic from the shelf

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber directly to request a medication change

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 294 of 1136

294. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking warfarin calls the pharmacy to report frequent nosebleeds and blood in their urine. Which action should the pharmacy technician take first?

Immediately refer the patient to the pharmacist for urgent assessment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to skip the next warfarin dose and monitor symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient take an over-the-counter iron supplement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule the patient for a routine INR check next week

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 295 of 1136

295. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking a statin is prescribed a new medication. The pharmacist asks the technician to verify liver function test results before dispensing. Which monitoring parameter is most relevant?

ALT and AST levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serum creatinine and BUN

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fasting blood glucose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium and sodium levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 296 of 1136

296. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient receiving amoxicillin develops hives, facial swelling, and difficulty breathing within minutes of taking the first dose. This reaction is best classified as which type?

Anaphylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dose-related toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug intolerance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 297 of 1136

297. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 70-year-old patient on prednisone and ciprofloxacin reports sudden, sharp pain in the back of their ankle while walking. Based on the patient’s medication profile, which adverse drug reaction is most likely occurring?

Fluoroquinolone-induced Achilles tendon rupture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Steroid-induced osteoporotic fracture of the ankle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral neuropathy from ciprofloxacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gout flare triggered by corticosteroid use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 298 of 1136

298. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile and notices the patient takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and has a new serum creatinine result of 2.4 mg/dL (previously 1.0 mg/dL). Why is this lab result clinically significant for this medication?

Declining renal function increases the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elevated creatinine indicates metformin is causing hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication is no longer effective at this level of renal function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin directly causes elevated serum creatinine as a common side effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 299 of 1136

299. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient experiences mild stomach upset when taking ibuprofen on an empty stomach. A different patient develops anaphylaxis with throat swelling after taking ibuprofen. How are these two reactions best distinguished?

The first is a predictable side effect, while the second is an allergic adverse drug reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are considered allergic reactions of different severity levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The first is an adverse drug reaction, while the second is a drug intolerance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are dose-dependent side effects that resolve with dose reduction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 300 of 1136

300. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for cephalexin for a patient whose allergy profile lists “penicillin – rash.” The system generates an allergy alert. Which factor is most important for the pharmacist to evaluate when deciding whether to proceed?

The type and severity of the patient's documented penicillin reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether the patient has ever taken any antibiotic in the past

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The total number of allergies listed in the patient profile

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether the cephalexin prescription is for a viral or bacterial infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 301 of 1136

301. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking fluoxetine, metoprolol, and atorvastatin reports fatigue, weight gain, and decreased motivation. Based on the medication profile, which drug is the most likely contributor to this combination of symptoms?

Metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A combined effect of all three medications equally

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 302 of 1136

302. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking acetaminophen 1000 mg four times daily for chronic pain also purchases an OTC cold product containing acetaminophen 500 mg per dose. What is the primary safety concern the pharmacy technician should bring to the pharmacist’s attention?

The combined daily acetaminophen dose may exceed the maximum safe limit and risk hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The cold product may reduce the effectiveness of the prescription acetaminophen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acetaminophen from two different sources increases the risk of kidney damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Taking two acetaminophen products simultaneously will cause a drug interaction with the cold medicine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 303 of 1136

303. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is most commonly involved in clinically significant drug interactions?

CYP3A4

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP1A2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2C9

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2E1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 304 of 1136

304. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which dietary supplement is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing hepatic enzymes?

St. John's Wort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Echinacea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Milk thistle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valerian root

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 305 of 1136

305. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which food component can significantly interfere with the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?

Vitamin K

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 306 of 1136

306. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which mineral found in dairy products decreases the absorption of tetracycline antibiotics?

Calcium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phosphorus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 307 of 1136

307. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which life-threatening condition can result from combining an SSRI with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Malignant hyperthermia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 308 of 1136

308. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

High-dose biotin supplementation can interfere with which type of laboratory test, potentially causing inaccurate results?

Thyroid function tests

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Complete blood count panels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Basic metabolic panels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urinalysis dipstick tests

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 309 of 1136

309. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Grapefruit juice primarily affects drug metabolism by inhibiting which enzyme in the intestinal wall?

CYP3A4

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2D6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2C19

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP1A2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 310 of 1136

310. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking warfarin 5 mg daily begins self-medicating with ibuprofen for knee pain. What is the primary concern with this combination?

Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding due to additive antiplatelet and anticoagulant effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreased warfarin absorption leading to subtherapeutic anticoagulation levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased warfarin metabolism resulting in reduced anticoagulant effectiveness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reduced ibuprofen efficacy due to competitive binding at the pain receptor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 311 of 1136

311. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for erythromycin for a patient currently taking simvastatin. What should the technician flag for pharmacist review?

Erythromycin inhibits CYP3A4 and can increase simvastatin levels, raising the risk of rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Erythromycin induces CYP2D6 and can decrease simvastatin levels, reducing cholesterol control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simvastatin inhibits the antibacterial action of erythromycin through competitive antagonism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Erythromycin and simvastatin compete for renal tubular secretion, causing nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 312 of 1136

312. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking methotrexate weekly for rheumatoid arthritis asks about using naproxen for a headache. Why is this combination concerning?

NSAIDs decrease renal clearance of methotrexate, increasing the risk of methotrexate toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen accelerates hepatic metabolism of methotrexate, rendering it ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate blocks the analgesic mechanism of naproxen at the cyclooxygenase receptor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen converts methotrexate to a toxic metabolite through phase II conjugation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 313 of 1136

313. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on amlodipine 10 mg daily reports drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every morning. What interaction should the pharmacy technician alert the pharmacist about?

Grapefruit juice can increase amlodipine blood levels, potentially causing excessive hypotension and dizziness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice decreases amlodipine absorption, potentially reducing blood pressure control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice converts amlodipine to a nephrotoxic metabolite in the gastrointestinal tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice chelates amlodipine in the stomach, preventing systemic absorption entirely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 314 of 1136

314. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily asks if it is acceptable to take the antibiotic with a calcium carbonate antacid. What should the patient be advised?

Separate the doses by at least two hours because calcium can chelate ciprofloxacin and reduce its absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take them together because the antacid protects the stomach from ciprofloxacin-related irritation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Avoid calcium entirely for the full duration of antibiotic therapy to prevent allergic reactions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Double the ciprofloxacin dose when taking it with antacids to compensate for enhanced metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 315 of 1136

315. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient currently taking sertraline is prescribed tramadol for moderate pain. What potential adverse reaction should be considered with this drug combination?

Serotonin syndrome due to the additive serotonergic effects of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatic failure due to combined hepatotoxic effects of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Respiratory alkalosis due to competing effects on the central chemoreceptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Agranulocytosis due to combined bone marrow suppression from both agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 316 of 1136

316. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient with a history of asthma presents with a new prescription for propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. Why should this combination be flagged for pharmacist review?

Non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol can cause bronchospasm and worsen asthma symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propranolol increases mucus production specifically in patients with a history of asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta-blockers reduce the effectiveness of inhaled corticosteroids used for asthma maintenance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propranolol causes adrenal suppression that worsens the inflammatory component of asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 317 of 1136

317. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient with a creatinine clearance of 25 mL/min has a prescription for metformin 1000 mg twice daily. What concern should the pharmacy technician bring to the pharmacist’s attention?

Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment due to the risk of lactic acidosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin causes rapid hypoglycemia that is worsened by decreased renal drug clearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin is directly nephrotoxic and will further reduce the patient's kidney function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin requires hepatic activation that is impaired in patients with renal dysfunction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 318 of 1136

318. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking ginkgo biloba supplements presents a new prescription for warfarin. What interaction should be flagged?

Ginkgo biloba has antiplatelet properties that can increase bleeding risk when combined with warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ginkgo biloba induces warfarin metabolism, reducing its anticoagulant effectiveness significantly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ginkgo biloba increases vitamin K absorption from the diet, directly antagonizing warfarin activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ginkgo biloba displaces warfarin from albumin binding sites, causing acute hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 319 of 1136

319. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician notices a patient profile with both ketoconazole and atorvastatin. Why does this combination require pharmacist intervention?

Ketoconazole is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor that can significantly elevate atorvastatin levels and increase myopathy risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ketoconazole reduces atorvastatin absorption through chelation in the gastrointestinal tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin inhibits the antifungal activity of ketoconazole through competitive receptor binding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ketoconazole induces CYP2D6, causing rapid conversion of atorvastatin to a hepatotoxic metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 320 of 1136

320. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) receives a new prescription for meloxicam 15 mg daily for arthritis pain. What is the primary concern?

NSAIDs can further reduce renal blood flow and worsen kidney function in patients with renal disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Meloxicam is hepatotoxic and requires dose adjustment based on kidney function staging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NSAIDs increase potassium excretion excessively in patients with compromised renal function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Meloxicam accumulates in renal tissue and causes irreversible crystalline nephropathy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 321 of 1136

321. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on fluoxetine is prescribed linezolid for a resistant bacterial infection. What is the greatest risk associated with this combination?

Serotonin syndrome because linezolid has monoamine oxidase inhibiting properties

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neutropenia because both drugs independently suppress white blood cell production

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatic failure because linezolid blocks fluoxetine glucuronidation in the liver

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertensive crisis because fluoxetine potentiates the vasoconstrictive effects of linezolid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 322 of 1136

322. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking warfarin begins a course of rifampin for latent tuberculosis. How is the warfarin therapy most likely to be affected?

Rifampin induces CYP enzymes, increasing warfarin metabolism and reducing its anticoagulant effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rifampin chelates warfarin in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing adequate drug absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rifampin enhances vitamin K synthesis by gut bacteria, directly opposing warfarin activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rifampin displaces warfarin from protein binding sites, causing acute hemorrhagic events

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 323 of 1136

323. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient presents with agitation, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, tremor, and hyperreflexia. Their medication list includes venlafaxine and sumatriptan. Which mechanism best explains this clinical presentation?

Excessive serotonergic stimulation from the combined serotonin reuptake inhibition and serotonin receptor agonism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticholinergic toxicity from the combined muscarinic receptor blockade of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sympathomimetic overdrive from the combined norepinephrine-releasing properties of both agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dopaminergic excess from the combined dopamine reuptake inhibition at the basal ganglia level

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 324 of 1136

324. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on cyclosporine begins taking St. John’s Wort for mild depression. Two weeks later, laboratory results show a significant drop in cyclosporine trough levels. Which pharmacokinetic mechanism best explains this finding?

St. John's Wort induced CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein, increasing cyclosporine metabolism and efflux

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

St. John's Wort inhibited cyclosporine absorption through direct chemical chelation in the gut

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

St. John's Wort increased renal tubular secretion of cyclosporine through organic anion transporters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

St. John's Wort displaced cyclosporine from tissue binding sites, increasing urinary elimination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 325 of 1136

325. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient is taking azithromycin and ondansetron concurrently. Both medications carry a risk of QT prolongation. If the pharmacist decides to intervene, which of the following best describes the rationale for concern?

Additive effects on cardiac ion channels can increase the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially fatal arrhythmia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for the same hepatic enzyme, causing elevated serum levels and direct cardiotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination creates a synergistic vagolytic effect that causes dangerous sinus tachycardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Azithromycin converts ondansetron to a metabolite that directly damages myocardial muscle fibers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 326 of 1136

326. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient’s medication profile includes clarithromycin, lovastatin, and amlodipine. A pharmacy technician reviews the profile and identifies a high-priority interaction. Which drug pair represents the most clinically dangerous interaction, and why?

Clarithromycin and lovastatin, because CYP3A4 inhibition by clarithromycin can raise lovastatin to levels causing rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lovastatin and amlodipine, because both drugs compete for albumin binding and cause severe hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clarithromycin and amlodipine, because the macrolide converts amlodipine to a directly nephrotoxic metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lovastatin and clarithromycin, because lovastatin reduces the antibacterial efficacy of the macrolide antibiotic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 327 of 1136

327. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking phenytoin for seizure control is started on fluconazole for a fungal infection. After one week, the patient reports dizziness, nystagmus, and ataxia. Which pharmacokinetic interaction best accounts for these symptoms?

Fluconazole inhibited CYP2C9, decreasing phenytoin metabolism and causing phenytoin toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluconazole induced CYP3A4, shifting phenytoin to an alternative toxic metabolic pathway

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin inhibited fluconazole absorption, causing fungal progression with secondary neurologic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluconazole displaced phenytoin from GABA receptors, causing paradoxical central nervous system excitation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 328 of 1136

328. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the beyond-use date for reconstituted amoxicillin oral suspension when stored in the refrigerator?

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 329 of 1136

329. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the beyond-use date for reconstituted azithromycin oral suspension when stored at room temperature?

10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 330 of 1136

330. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

How long is an opened vial of insulin considered stable when stored at room temperature?

28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

42 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

90 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 331 of 1136

331. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

According to USP 797, what is the maximum beyond-use date for a multi-dose vial after initial puncture?

28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

90 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 332 of 1136

332. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which of the following medications requires protection from light due to photodegradation?

Nitroglycerin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 333 of 1136

333. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which of the following vaccines must be stored in a freezer rather than a refrigerator?

Varicella (Varivax)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatitis B

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Influenza (inactivated)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pneumococcal (PCV13)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 334 of 1136

334. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Sodium nitroprusside IV solution must be protected from light by wrapping the infusion bag in what color of material?

Amber or opaque

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Green

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Red

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 335 of 1136

335. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician reconstitutes a bottle of amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension on March 3. What is the last day the patient may use this medication if stored properly in the refrigerator?

March 17

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

March 10

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

March 13

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

March 31

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 336 of 1136

336. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A patient picks up an unopened box of insulin glargine (Lantus) pens. The pharmacy label should instruct the patient to discard an opened pen after how many days at room temperature?

28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

42 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 337 of 1136

337. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician notices that a refrigerator-stored vaccine has been exposed to temperatures of 12 degrees Celsius for 4 hours. What should the technician do first?

Quarantine the vaccine and report the temperature excursion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately discard the vaccine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the vaccine to the refrigerator and continue using it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Move the vaccine to the freezer to rapidly cool it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 338 of 1136

338. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician reconstitutes cefazolin 1 g for IV use with sterile water. According to the package insert, the reconstituted solution is stable for 24 hours at room temperature. The technician reconstitutes it at 8:00 AM on Monday. When must the solution be discarded?

8:00 AM on Tuesday

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8:00 PM on Monday

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8:00 AM on Wednesday

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8:00 PM on Tuesday

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 339 of 1136

339. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy compounds a Category 1 CSP (compounded sterile preparation) under USP 797 at 10:00 AM. If the preparation is stored at room temperature, what is the maximum beyond-use date?

12 hours after preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 hour after preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24 hours after preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

48 hours after preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 340 of 1136

340. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician prepares an IV admixture of amphotericin B. Which special handling precaution is required for this medication during administration?

Protect the IV bag and tubing from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Use a 0.22-micron filter on the IV line

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Administer through a central line only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store the prepared IV bag in the freezer until use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 341 of 1136

341. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is asked to reconstitute cephalexin 250 mg/5 mL oral suspension. Where should the technician store the reconstituted product?

In the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In the freezer at -20 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At room temperature, away from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In a warming cabinet at 37 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 342 of 1136

342. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

An unopened vial of insulin lispro (Humalog) is stored in the refrigerator with an expiration date of September 2027. A patient opens it on January 15. What is the new beyond-use date?

February 12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

January 29

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

February 15

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

September 2027

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 343 of 1136

343. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy receives a shipment of influenza vaccines. The temperature monitor inside the shipping container reads 10 degrees Celsius. What is the appropriate action?

Quarantine the vaccines and contact the supplier to report the excursion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the vaccines in the refrigerator immediately and use as normal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard the entire shipment without contacting the supplier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the vaccines in the freezer to restore proper temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 344 of 1136

344. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing vancomycin 1 g in 250 mL of normal saline for IV infusion. The stability reference indicates the admixture is stable for 14 days refrigerated. Under USP 797 Category 2 conditions, what is the maximum BUD that can be assigned?

10 days if refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days refrigerated per manufacturer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

48 hours at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 345 of 1136

345. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A multi-dose vial of bacteriostatic sodium chloride 0.9% was first punctured on February 1. A technician needs to use it on February 27. Is the vial still acceptable for use?

Yes, because it is within the 28-day BUD

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because the BUD expired on February 14

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because multi-dose vials expire after 7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because multi-dose vials do not expire after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 346 of 1136

346. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy reconstitutes a vial of piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) at 2:00 PM. The package insert states the reconstituted solution is stable for 24 hours at room temperature or 48 hours refrigerated. If the pharmacy stores it in the refrigerator, when must it be discarded?

2:00 PM two days later

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2:00 PM the next day

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2:00 AM two days later

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2:00 PM three days later

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 347 of 1136

347. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician discovers that a digital data logger for the vaccine refrigerator recorded a minimum temperature of -1 degree Celsius overnight, but the current temperature reads 5 degrees Celsius. Several vials of Tdap, hepatitis B, and HPV vaccines are stored inside. What is the most appropriate course of action?

Quarantine all vaccines, document the excursion, and contact the vaccine manufacturers for guidance on viability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard only the Tdap vaccine because it is the most temperature-sensitive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue using all vaccines because the current temperature is within range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Move all vaccines to the freezer temporarily while investigating the logger

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 348 of 1136

348. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician prepares a CSP using aseptic technique in a cleanroom that meets USP 797 Category 2 conditions. The chemical stability data from the manufacturer supports a 30-day shelf life when refrigerated. The technician assigns a 30-day BUD. Is this appropriate?

No, because USP 797 Category 2 limits the refrigerated BUD to a maximum of 10 days without sterility testing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because manufacturer stability data always takes precedence over USP 797

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because all CSPs must be used within 24 hours regardless of conditions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because cleanroom preparation allows for extended beyond-use dating

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 349 of 1136

349. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A patient calls the pharmacy and reports that their insulin aspart (NovoLog) pen was accidentally left on the kitchen counter (approximately 25 degrees Celsius) for 3 days. The pen was opened 20 days ago. Should the patient continue to use this pen?

Yes, because opened insulin aspart is stable at room temperature for 28 days and only 20 days have passed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because insulin must always be refrigerated once opened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because 3 days at room temperature exceeds the allowable excursion time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if the patient places it back in the refrigerator immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 350 of 1136

350. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy prepares a nitroglycerin IV infusion in a standard PVC bag. During a quality check, a pharmacist flags this as a concern. What is the stability issue with nitroglycerin in PVC containers?

Nitroglycerin adsorbs to PVC, reducing the concentration delivered to the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PVC releases plasticizers that degrade nitroglycerin into toxic metabolites

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nitroglycerin reacts chemically with PVC, forming a precipitate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PVC containers do not protect nitroglycerin from light exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 351 of 1136

351. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy stocks both MMRV (ProQuad) and MMR (M-M-R II) vaccines. During a routine temperature review, the freezer containing MMRV shows it maintained -20 degrees Celsius consistently, while the refrigerator storing MMR shows it maintained 5 degrees Celsius. A new technician asks why these similar vaccines are stored at different temperatures. What is the best explanation?

MMRV contains a varicella component that requires frozen storage, while MMR is stable when refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MMRV is a live vaccine while MMR is inactivated, requiring different temperatures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The freezer storage is optional for MMRV and is only used to extend its shelf life

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both vaccines require freezer storage, and the MMR is being stored incorrectly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 352 of 1136

352. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is reviewing three CSPs prepared under different conditions. CSP A was prepared in a segregated compounding area and stored at room temperature. CSP B was prepared in a cleanroom meeting Category 2 standards and stored refrigerated. CSP C was prepared under Category 2 conditions and stored at room temperature. What are the correct maximum BUDs for CSP A, CSP B, and CSP C respectively?

12 hours, 10 days, 4 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24 hours, 14 days, 7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 hour, 10 days, 3 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

12 hours, 30 days, 10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 353 of 1136

353. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which pair of medications represents a therapeutic duplication involving beta-blockers?

Atenolol and metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atenolol and lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol and amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propranolol and diltiazem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 354 of 1136

354. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication profile shows amlodipine 10 mg daily and nifedipine ER 60 mg daily, both prescribed by different providers. What should the pharmacy technician recognize about this combination?

This is a therapeutic duplication because both are dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is an acceptable combination because they have different mechanisms of action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a drug interaction that increases the risk of serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is appropriate therapy because one is immediate-release and the other is extended-release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 355 of 1136

355. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician processes a new prescription for cetirizine 10 mg daily for a patient whose profile shows an active prescription for loratadine 10 mg daily. What concern should the technician raise?

Therapeutic duplication because both are second-generation antihistamines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug interaction causing excessive drowsiness comparable to first-generation antihistamines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contraindicated combination due to cardiac arrhythmia risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dosing error because 10 mg exceeds the maximum dose for both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 356 of 1136

356. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient being treated for type 2 diabetes is prescribed semaglutide (Ozempic) weekly injections. The patient’s profile already includes liraglutide (Victoza) daily injections. What type of medication safety concern does this represent?

Therapeutic duplication because both are GLP-1 receptor agonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acceptable combination therapy because they have different dosing schedules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug interaction requiring dose adjustment of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Formulary restriction that requires prior authorization for both agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 357 of 1136

357. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician enters a prescription for cyclobenzaprine 10 mg three times daily for a patient currently taking methocarbamol 750 mg four times daily. The system generates a DUR alert. What is the basis for this alert?

Both medications are skeletal muscle relaxants, creating a therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are opioid analgesics requiring PDMP reporting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combined doses exceed the daily maximum for the muscle relaxant class

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are benzodiazepines with additive sedation risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 358 of 1136

358. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication profile includes carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, diltiazem ER 240 mg daily, metformin 1000 mg twice daily, and propranolol 40 mg three times daily. Which therapeutic duplication should the pharmacy technician identify?

Carvedilol and propranolol, because both are beta-blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol and diltiazem, because both lower blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diltiazem and metformin, because both affect cardiac function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propranolol and diltiazem, because both are calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 359 of 1136

359. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking dulaglutide (Trulicity) weekly is prescribed exenatide ER (Bydureon) by a new endocrinologist. The pharmacy technician processes the prescription and the system does not generate an alert. How should the technician proceed?

Notify the pharmacist about the potential therapeutic duplication of two GLP-1 receptor agonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process both prescriptions because the system did not detect a problem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the endocrinologist directly to request a different medication class

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense both medications because weekly dosing schedules do not overlap

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 360 of 1136

360. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s profile contains verapamil ER 240 mg daily and diltiazem ER 180 mg daily. Both are prescribed for blood pressure control. Why is this combination particularly concerning compared to other therapeutic duplications?

Both are non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers that depress cardiac conduction, increasing the risk of severe bradycardia and heart block

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are metabolized by CYP3A4, causing dangerously elevated blood levels of each drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications cause hyperkalemia when combined, requiring frequent electrolyte monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are contraindicated in patients with hypertension and should only be used for arrhythmias

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 361 of 1136

361. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking fexofenadine 180 mg daily for seasonal allergies receives a new prescription for diphenhydramine 25 mg at bedtime for insomnia. Should this trigger a therapeutic duplication concern?

Yes, because both are antihistamines, even though they belong to different generations with different side effect profiles

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because fexofenadine is non-sedating and diphenhydramine is sedating, making them different classes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because one is used for allergies and the other is used for sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if both medications are taken at the same time of day

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 362 of 1136

362. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking tizanidine 4 mg three times daily for muscle spasms receives a new prescription for baclofen 10 mg three times daily from an orthopedic surgeon. What should the pharmacy technician recognize?

This is a therapeutic duplication of two skeletal muscle relaxants that increases the risk of excessive sedation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is an appropriate combination because the medications work through completely different mechanisms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a drug interaction that requires a dose reduction of tizanidine only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a formulary issue requiring prior authorization but not a clinical concern

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 363 of 1136

363. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely when a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spironolactone is combined with an ACE inhibitor?

Hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypokalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypernatremia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypocalcemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 364 of 1136

364. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking digoxin 0.125 mg daily is started on amiodarone 200 mg daily for a cardiac arrhythmia. What interaction should the pharmacy technician flag for the pharmacist?

Amiodarone increases digoxin serum levels, raising the risk of digoxin toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone decreases digoxin absorption, reducing its therapeutic effectiveness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Digoxin accelerates the metabolism of amiodarone, making it less effective for arrhythmia control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications cause QT shortening, increasing the risk of ventricular tachycardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 365 of 1136

365. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient stabilized on lithium 600 mg twice daily for bipolar disorder begins taking ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily for back pain. What is the primary concern with this combination?

NSAIDs reduce renal lithium clearance, increasing the risk of lithium toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen chelates lithium in the GI tract, preventing absorption and reducing therapeutic levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lithium induces the metabolism of ibuprofen, making it ineffective for pain relief

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications cause serotonin syndrome when taken concurrently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 366 of 1136

366. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on phenytoin 300 mg daily is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Why should this combination be flagged for pharmacist review?

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole inhibits the metabolism of phenytoin, increasing the risk of phenytoin toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin induces the antibacterial activity of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, causing antibiotic resistance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications compete for renal tubular secretion, causing nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole reduces phenytoin absorption through chelation in the GI tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 367 of 1136

367. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking theophylline 300 mg twice daily for COPD is prescribed ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for a respiratory infection. What interaction should the technician bring to the pharmacist’s attention?

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism, increasing the risk of theophylline toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Theophylline reduces the antibacterial effectiveness of ciprofloxacin through competitive antagonism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin chelates theophylline in the GI tract, preventing its absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications cause QT prolongation, requiring ECG monitoring before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 368 of 1136

368. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking lisinopril 20 mg daily and spironolactone 25 mg daily presents a new prescription for a potassium supplement (K-Dur 20 mEq daily). Why is this combination concerning?

All three agents increase serum potassium, creating a high risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium supplements decrease the blood pressure-lowering effects of both lisinopril and spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spironolactone blocks the absorption of potassium supplements, making them ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril and potassium supplements cause metabolic alkalosis when taken with spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 369 of 1136

369. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking lithium 900 mg daily reports starting a new diet that involves drinking large amounts of water and drastically reducing sodium intake. How could this dietary change affect lithium therapy?

Reduced sodium intake causes the kidneys to reabsorb more lithium, increasing serum lithium levels and toxicity risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased water intake dilutes lithium in the bloodstream, making the medication ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Low sodium intake enhances hepatic metabolism of lithium, reducing therapeutic blood levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excess water consumption causes lithium to precipitate in the renal tubules, leading to kidney stones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 370 of 1136

370. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on phenytoin 400 mg daily is started on carbamazepine for seizure control. After two weeks, the patient’s phenytoin serum level drops below the therapeutic range. What is the most likely explanation?

Carbamazepine induces CYP enzymes, increasing phenytoin metabolism and lowering its serum concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine inhibits phenytoin absorption in the small intestine through competitive binding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin is displaced from plasma proteins by carbamazepine, causing increased renal elimination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine blocks the active transport of phenytoin across the blood-brain barrier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 371 of 1136

371. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily and amiodarone 200 mg daily presents with nausea, blurred vision with yellow halos, and a heart rate of 45 beats per minute. Which interaction most likely caused these symptoms?

Amiodarone elevated digoxin levels by inhibiting its renal and hepatic clearance, causing digoxin toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Digoxin enhanced the QT-prolonging effect of amiodarone, causing symptomatic bradycardia alone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone displaced digoxin from tissue binding sites, causing an acute redistribution reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs depleted intracellular magnesium, triggering a combined electrolyte disturbance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 372 of 1136

372. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking theophylline for chronic asthma stops smoking after 10 years. The patient’s theophylline level, previously stable at 12 mcg/mL, rises to 22 mcg/mL two weeks later without a dose change. What pharmacokinetic mechanism explains this change?

Smoking induces CYP1A2, and cessation reversed this induction, decreasing theophylline metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Smoking inhibits CYP1A2, and cessation restored normal enzyme activity, increasing drug activation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nicotine competes with theophylline for protein binding, and its removal increased free theophylline levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Smoking increases renal blood flow, and cessation reduced theophylline excretion through the kidneys

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 373 of 1136

373. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What is the standard concentration of pediatric amoxicillin oral suspension used for high-dose therapy in acute otitis media?

400 mg/5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

125 mg/5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

200 mg/5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

500 mg/5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 374 of 1136

374. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for a fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg/hr. The label states to apply one patch every 72 hours. How often should the patient change the patch?

Every 3 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 24 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 12 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 375 of 1136

375. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription reads: “Nitroglycerin transdermal patch 0.4 mg/hr, apply one patch daily in the morning and remove at bedtime.” Why does the prescriber instruct the patient to remove the patch at night?

To provide a nitrate-free interval that prevents the development of tolerance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent the patch from causing skin burns during sleep

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To avoid dangerously low blood pressure while the patient is lying down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To reduce the total daily dose of nitroglycerin below the maximum safe limit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 376 of 1136

376. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient presents a prescription for estradiol transdermal patch 0.05 mg/day, to be applied twice weekly. Which application instruction is correct for this dosage form?

Apply to clean, dry skin on the lower abdomen or upper buttock, rotating sites with each application

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply to the breast area for optimal hormone absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply to the same site each time to maintain consistent blood levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply to the inner wrist where skin is thinnest for fastest absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 377 of 1136

377. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone otic suspension. The patient asks if they can use it in their eye since they also have an eye infection. What should the technician communicate?

Refer the patient to the pharmacist, as otic products should not be used in the eye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Confirm that otic and ophthalmic products are interchangeable since they contain the same medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to use half the otic dose in the eye to ensure safety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient to wait 30 minutes between applying the product in the ear and the eye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 378 of 1136

378. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber orders ibuprofen oral suspension 100 mg/5 mL for a 3-year-old child weighing 15 kg, dosed at 10 mg/kg every 6 hours. What volume should be administered per dose?

7.5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 379 of 1136

379. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is written for acetaminophen 160 mg/5 mL oral suspension for a pediatric patient. The pharmacy only stocks acetaminophen 325 mg chewable tablets. What should the technician do?

Notify the pharmacist because the oral suspension should be ordered; tablets are not an appropriate substitute for young children

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crush half of a 325 mg tablet and mix with water to approximate the prescribed dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the chewable tablets and instruct the parent to break them into the correct dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Substitute with an adult acetaminophen liquid at a reduced volume

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 380 of 1136

380. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives prescriptions for both promethazine 25 mg rectal suppositories and promethazine 12.5 mg oral tablets for the same patient. The rectal suppositories are prescribed for nausea with vomiting, while the tablets are for mild nausea. What important distinction should the technician understand about these two dosage forms?

The rectal route bypasses the GI tract, making suppositories appropriate when the patient is actively vomiting and cannot retain oral medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rectal suppositories are always more potent than oral tablets and should only be used in emergencies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The two dosage forms contain different active ingredients despite sharing the same drug name

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rectal suppositories provide a faster onset than oral tablets because they are absorbed through the hepatic portal system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 381 of 1136

381. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy stocks both ofloxacin 0.3% ophthalmic solution and ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution. A technician notices that both products contain the same drug at the same concentration. Which statement about using these products interchangeably is correct?

Ophthalmic solution may be used in the ear, but the otic solution should not be used in the eye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both products are fully interchangeable because they contain identical concentrations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither product can be substituted for the other under any circumstances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The otic solution may be used in the eye but the ophthalmic solution should never be placed in the ear

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 382 of 1136

382. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is being converted from a fentanyl transdermal patch 50 mcg/hr to an oral opioid because the patch is causing skin irritation. The prescriber calculates an equivalent oral morphine dose. Why is this conversion process particularly important for fentanyl patches?

Fentanyl is significantly more potent than morphine, so even small conversion errors can cause overdose or inadequate pain control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fentanyl patches contain a 3-day supply of medication that must be divided into exact daily oral doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transdermal fentanyl has a different mechanism of action than oral opioids, requiring a different receptor conversion factor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral morphine must be started at triple the patch dose because oral bioavailability is only 33 percent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 383 of 1136

383. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which metabolic side effect is most commonly associated with second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics such as olanzapine?

Weight gain and hyperglycemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Osteoporosis and hypocalcemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypothyroidism and bradycardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyponatremia and fluid retention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 384 of 1136

384. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient who has been taking prednisone 40 mg daily for three months develops a round, puffy face, easy bruising, and elevated blood sugar. Which condition is this presentation consistent with?

Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome from chronic corticosteroid use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic reaction to prednisone requiring immediate discontinuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adrenal insufficiency from prednisone suppressing the pituitary gland

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from corticosteroid interaction with endogenous neurotransmitters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 385 of 1136

385. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient receiving IV gentamicin for a serious infection reports ringing in the ears and difficulty hearing. Which adverse effect should the pharmacy technician recognize?

Ototoxicity from the aminoglycoside antibiotic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from the antibiotic crossing the blood-brain barrier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug-induced lupus causing inflammation of the inner ear structures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vestibular migraine triggered by the IV fluid infusion rate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 386 of 1136

386. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A hospital pharmacy technician is reviewing trough levels for a patient receiving tobramycin IV. The trough level is 3.2 mcg/mL (normal is less than 2 mcg/mL). Which adverse effect is this patient at greatest risk for developing?

Nephrotoxicity from aminoglycoside accumulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatotoxicity from aminoglycoside-induced liver enzyme elevation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bone marrow suppression causing neutropenia and thrombocytopenia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral neuropathy from demyelination of sensory nerve fibers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 387 of 1136

387. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

An elderly patient taking diphenhydramine, oxybutynin, and benztropine reports confusion, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. What concept best describes the combined effect of these medications?

Anticholinergic burden from multiple medications with anticholinergic properties

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from excessive stimulation of serotonin receptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome from dopamine receptor blockade

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cholinergic crisis from overstimulation of acetylcholine receptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 388 of 1136

388. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on long-term prednisone therapy is advised to take calcium and vitamin D supplements. What corticosteroid-related adverse effect are these supplements intended to help prevent?

Osteoporosis from corticosteroid-induced bone loss

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypoglycemia from corticosteroid-related insulin resistance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatotoxicity from corticosteroid metabolism in the liver

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperkalemia from corticosteroid effects on the adrenal glands

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 389 of 1136

389. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking quetiapine 400 mg daily develops a fasting blood glucose of 210 mg/dL and a triglyceride level of 350 mg/dL. The patient has gained 25 pounds in six months. Which medication is most likely responsible, and what monitoring was likely missed?

Quetiapine; routine metabolic monitoring including fasting glucose and lipid panels should have been performed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quetiapine; liver function tests should have been monitored monthly to prevent metabolic syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's concurrent medications are responsible; quetiapine does not affect glucose or lipid levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quetiapine; thyroid function tests would have identified the cause of weight gain and metabolic changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 390 of 1136

390. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed gentamicin IV and furosemide IV concurrently. Why does this combination pose a greater risk than either drug alone?

Both medications are independently nephrotoxic and ototoxic, and their combined use amplifies both risks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Furosemide inhibits the renal excretion of gentamicin, causing dangerous drug accumulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gentamicin blocks the diuretic effect of furosemide, leading to dangerous fluid overload

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for protein binding, causing unpredictable fluctuations in serum levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 391 of 1136

391. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

An 82-year-old nursing home resident is taking amitriptyline 50 mg at bedtime, oxybutynin 5 mg three times daily, and meclizine 25 mg twice daily. The patient is increasingly confused and has fallen twice this week. Which pharmacologic property shared by all three medications is the most likely contributing factor?

Anticholinergic activity, which causes cognitive impairment, sedation, and fall risk in elderly patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonergic activity, which causes excessive CNS stimulation and psychomotor agitation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alpha-adrenergic blockade, which causes orthostatic hypotension and syncope only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

GABA receptor agonism, which causes respiratory depression and excessive daytime sleepiness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 392 of 1136

392. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient has been taking dexamethasone 4 mg daily for two months and is instructed by the prescriber to stop the medication. The patient abruptly discontinues it without tapering and develops fatigue, weakness, hypotension, and nausea three days later. What adverse effect is this patient experiencing?

Adrenal insufficiency from sudden withdrawal of chronic exogenous corticosteroid therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Steroid rebound inflammation causing systemic inflammatory response syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic withdrawal reaction to the inactive ingredients in the dexamethasone tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cortisol excess syndrome from stored dexamethasone being released from fat tissue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 393 of 1136

393. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes a prescription for gabapentin 300 mg three times daily. The patient mentions it was prescribed for nerve pain in the feet from diabetes. The technician knows gabapentin is FDA-approved for seizures and postherpetic neuralgia. How should this use be classified?

Off-label use, because diabetic neuropathy is not an FDA-approved indication for gabapentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Misuse, because gabapentin should only be prescribed for its approved indications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An approved indication, because gabapentin is FDA-approved for all types of neuropathic pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A medication error, because the prescriber wrote the wrong drug for this condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 394 of 1136

394. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents a prescription for methotrexate 15 mg weekly. The patient states it is for rheumatoid arthritis. A pharmacy technician recalls that methotrexate is also used in oncology. Which statement about methotrexate is correct?

Methotrexate is FDA-approved for multiple indications including certain cancers, rheumatoid arthritis, and severe psoriasis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate is only FDA-approved for cancer; its use in rheumatoid arthritis is always off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis requires daily dosing identical to the oncology regimen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate can only be dispensed for rheumatoid arthritis by specialty pharmacies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 395 of 1136

395. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician sees a prescription for amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime. The diagnosis listed is chronic migraine prophylaxis. The technician knows amitriptyline is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant. Is this prescription appropriate?

Yes, amitriptyline is commonly used off-label for migraine prophylaxis, chronic pain, and insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, tricyclic antidepressants should only be used for major depressive disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, the dose of 25 mg is too low to have any pharmacologic effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if the patient is also diagnosed with depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 396 of 1136

396. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient’s medication profile includes gabapentin 600 mg three times daily, methotrexate 20 mg weekly, and amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime. The diagnoses listed are epilepsy, psoriasis, and neuropathic pain. Which medication is being used for more than one of its FDA-approved indications?

Gabapentin, which is approved for both seizures and postherpetic neuralgia (a type of neuropathic pain)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amitriptyline, which is approved for both depression and neuropathic pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate, which is approved for both psoriasis and neuropathic pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications are being used exclusively off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 397 of 1136

397. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A prescriber writes a new prescription for trazodone 50 mg at bedtime with the indication listed as insomnia. A pharmacy technician notes that trazodone is classified as a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI) antidepressant. Which statement best describes this clinical situation?

Trazodone is FDA-approved for depression, but it is one of the most commonly prescribed medications off-label for insomnia due to its sedating properties

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trazodone is FDA-approved for both insomnia and depression at the 50 mg dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trazodone should not be used for insomnia because antidepressants can worsen sleep disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a prescribing error because trazodone has no sedating properties at any dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 398 of 1136

398. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Under USP 795, what is the default beyond-use date for a non-aqueous, non-sterile compounded preparation when no stability data is available?

180 days or the earliest expiration date of any ingredient, whichever is shorter

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

365 days from the date of compounding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 399 of 1136

399. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy compounds an aqueous oral solution containing no preservative under USP 795 guidelines. No stability data is available. What is the maximum beyond-use date that can be assigned?

14 days stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

180 days stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 400 of 1136

400. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician receives a shipment of adalimumab (Humira) prefilled syringes. The package states to store refrigerated at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius. The shipping temperature monitor reads 18 degrees Celsius upon arrival. What is the appropriate action?

Quarantine the shipment and contact the supplier, as the product may have lost potency due to temperature excursion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the syringes in the refrigerator immediately because they will regain stability once cooled

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store the syringes in the freezer for 24 hours to rapidly restore proper temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the product normally because biologic medications are not temperature-sensitive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 401 of 1136

401. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy opens a multi-dose vial of insulin aspart (NovoLog) on March 1 and stores it at room temperature. The manufacturer’s expiration date printed on the vial is December 2027. A technician needs to use the vial on March 25. Is the vial acceptable for use, and what determines its beyond-use date?

Yes, the vial is within the 28-day BUD from opening; the opened-vial BUD of March 29 supersedes the manufacturer's expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because the manufacturer's expiration date of December 2027 is the controlling date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because insulin must be used within 14 days once removed from refrigeration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because opened multi-dose vials must be discarded after 7 days per USP 797

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 402 of 1136

402. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy compounds a non-sterile progesterone cream using USP 795 guidelines. The formulation uses an anhydrous base, and no stability-indicating studies have been performed. The technician assigns a BUD of 14 days. Is this correct?

No, a non-aqueous non-sterile preparation may be assigned up to 180 days under USP 795 default rules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because all compounded preparations must have a 14-day BUD without stability data

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, the BUD should be 365 days because the anhydrous base prevents microbial contamination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because progesterone is chemically unstable and degrades rapidly in any base

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 403 of 1136

403. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient brings in a new prescription for levothyroxine 50 mcg daily from an endocrinologist. The pharmacy profile shows an active prescription for liothyronine 25 mcg daily from the patient’s primary care physician. What should the pharmacy technician identify about this combination?

Both are thyroid hormone replacement medications, representing a potential therapeutic duplication that requires pharmacist review

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is an acceptable combination because levothyroxine is T4 and liothyronine is T3, serving different functions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a drug interaction that increases the risk of hypothyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This combination is contraindicated due to mutual absorption interference

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 404 of 1136

404. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for omeprazole 20 mg daily for a patient whose medication profile already includes famotidine 20 mg twice daily. What concern should the technician raise with the pharmacist?

Therapeutic duplication because both medications suppress gastric acid secretion and concurrent use is generally not recommended

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug interaction causing dangerous elevation of stomach pH above 7.0

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is appropriate step-up therapy and no intervention is needed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole will cause famotidine to become toxic due to altered metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 405 of 1136

405. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient with COPD has active prescriptions for albuterol metered-dose inhaler (PRN) and levalbuterol nebulizer solution (PRN). The patient reports using both regularly for shortness of breath. What should the pharmacy technician recognize when reviewing this profile?

Therapeutic duplication because both are short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilators and concurrent use increases the risk of tachycardia and tremor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acceptable therapy because different delivery methods allow complementary dosing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A drug interaction that reduces the effectiveness of both bronchodilators

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A formulary issue requiring prior authorization for the nebulizer solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 406 of 1136

406. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician notices a patient’s profile contains empagliflozin 25 mg daily and dapagliflozin 10 mg daily, prescribed by two different providers. Both prescriptions have active refills. Which action best describes the technician’s responsibility?

Flag the profile for pharmacist review because both are SGLT2 inhibitors, representing a therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fill both prescriptions because different SGLT2 inhibitors may target different parts of the kidney

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the newer prescriber to request a therapeutic substitution to a DPP-4 inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the older prescription and fill only the newer one

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 407 of 1136

407. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient is picking up a new prescription for sertraline 50 mg daily. The technician notices the profile also contains an active prescription for escitalopram 10 mg daily. What type of safety concern does this present?

Therapeutic duplication because both are SSRIs, and concurrent use significantly increases the risk of serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acceptable combination therapy for treatment-resistant depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A dosing concern only if the combined doses exceed the maximum SSRI threshold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A formulary restriction that requires step therapy documentation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 408 of 1136

408. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient has prescriptions for pantoprazole 40 mg daily and lansoprazole 30 mg daily from two different gastroenterologists. When the technician attempts to process both, the system generates a therapeutic duplication alert. Which explanation best describes why this alert fired?

Both medications are proton pump inhibitors that work by the same mechanism, and using two PPIs simultaneously provides no additional therapeutic benefit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The alert fired because the total daily PPI dose exceeds FDA-approved maximums

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medications interact at the CYP2C19 enzyme, causing dangerously high drug levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The alert is a formulary warning because only one PPI is covered by the patient's insurance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 409 of 1136

409. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient profile that includes venlafaxine XR 150 mg daily and duloxetine 60 mg daily. The patient states both were prescribed by the same psychiatrist for depression and chronic pain. What should the technician do?

Alert the pharmacist to the therapeutic duplication because both are serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process both prescriptions because the combination is standard for treatment-resistant depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend switching duloxetine to a tricyclic antidepressant for pain management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Verify only the dosages because SNRIs from the same prescriber do not require duplication review

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 410 of 1136

410. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient transfers prescriptions from another pharmacy. The transferred medications include tiotropium (Spiriva) 18 mcg inhaler once daily and umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta) 62.5 mcg once daily. The patient also takes fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) twice daily. Which combination represents a therapeutic duplication?

Tiotropium and umeclidinium, because both are long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) bronchodilators

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tiotropium and fluticasone/salmeterol, because all contain bronchodilator components

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Umeclidinium and salmeterol (in Advair), because both are long-acting bronchodilators

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications overlap and represent a triple therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 411 of 1136

411. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient picking up a prescription for metronidazole 500 mg asks the pharmacy technician if there are any special instructions. The patient mentions they plan to celebrate a birthday this weekend with cocktails. What important counseling point should the pharmacist communicate?

Alcohol must be avoided during metronidazole therapy and for at least 72 hours after the last dose due to a disulfiram-like reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

One or two drinks are acceptable as long as metronidazole is taken with food

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alcohol only needs to be avoided on the days the medication is taken

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alcohol interacts with metronidazole only when consumed within 30 minutes of the dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 412 of 1136

412. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking carbamazepine 200 mg twice daily for seizure management tells the pharmacy technician they have been drinking grapefruit juice every morning with breakfast. What is the significance of this information?

Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4 and can increase carbamazepine blood levels, raising the risk of toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice decreases carbamazepine absorption and may cause breakthrough seizures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice has no clinically significant interaction with carbamazepine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice accelerates carbamazepine metabolism, requiring a dose increase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 413 of 1136

413. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy receives a new prescription for clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for a patient whose profile includes colchicine 0.6 mg daily for gout prophylaxis. The pharmacist places the prescription on hold. Which pharmacological mechanism best explains the concern?

Clarithromycin is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor that can dramatically increase colchicine levels, leading to potentially fatal toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clarithromycin reduces colchicine renal clearance by competing for tubular secretion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications prolong the QT interval and the combination increases arrhythmia risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clarithromycin induces CYP3A4, causing rapid colchicine metabolism and loss of gout control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 414 of 1136

414. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A male patient presents a new prescription for sildenafil 50 mg as needed. The pharmacy technician reviews his profile and sees isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg ER daily. Why should the technician immediately alert the pharmacist?

Sildenafil combined with nitrates can cause severe, potentially fatal hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are metabolized by the same enzyme, causing sildenafil toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isosorbide mononitrate reduces the effectiveness of sildenafil, making the prescription unnecessary

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination increases the risk of priapism requiring emergency intervention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 415 of 1136

415. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient takes spironolactone 25 mg daily for heart failure. A new prescription arrives for potassium chloride 20 mEq daily from a different provider. The pharmacy software generates a critical interaction alert. What is the primary clinical concern with this combination?

Life-threatening hyperkalemia because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that already elevates serum potassium levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metabolic alkalosis from excessive potassium retention in the distal tubule

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium chloride reduces the diuretic effectiveness of spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spironolactone increases renal excretion of supplemental potassium, making the supplement ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 416 of 1136

416. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on clopidogrel 75 mg daily for a coronary stent presents a new prescription for omeprazole 20 mg daily for gastric reflux. The interaction alert flags a CYP2C19 concern. What is the basis of this interaction?

Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, which is required to convert clopidogrel to its active metabolite, potentially reducing its antiplatelet effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole increases the antiplatelet effect of clopidogrel, raising the bleeding risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clopidogrel inhibits omeprazole metabolism, causing PPI accumulation and toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole changes gastric pH, preventing clopidogrel tablet dissolution and absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 417 of 1136

417. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician is verifying a prescription for tadalafil 5 mg daily for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient’s medication list includes nitroglycerin sublingual tablets PRN for chest pain. The pharmacist rejects the prescription. What pharmacological principle makes this combination dangerous even though the nitroglycerin is used only as needed?

Any concurrent use of a PDE-5 inhibitor with any nitrate formulation, whether scheduled or PRN, can cause severe unpredictable hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only scheduled nitrates interact with tadalafil; PRN nitroglycerin is safe with a 4-hour separation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The danger exists only with sildenafil, not tadalafil, because tadalafil has a longer half-life

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual nitroglycerin bypasses first-pass metabolism and therefore does not interact with oral PDE-5 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 418 of 1136

418. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) receives a new prescription for potassium chloride 10 mEq twice daily after a routine lab draw. The pharmacy technician notices an interaction alert. What is the concern?

Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and adding potassium supplementation increases the risk of hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrochlorothiazide causes potassium wasting that completely offsets the triamterene component, making the alert unnecessary

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium chloride reduces the antihypertensive effect of the combination product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triamterene increases potassium excretion in the presence of exogenous potassium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 419 of 1136

419. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on warfarin 5 mg daily is prescribed metronidazole 500 mg three times daily for a Clostridioides difficile infection. The pharmacy system generates a major interaction alert. What is the most accurate description of this interaction?

Metronidazole inhibits CYP2C9-mediated metabolism of warfarin's more potent S-enantiomer, significantly increasing the INR and bleeding risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metronidazole displaces warfarin from plasma protein binding sites, causing a temporary spike in free warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metronidazole reduces vitamin K-producing gut bacteria, which is the sole mechanism of INR elevation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metronidazole induces CYP1A2, accelerating warfarin clearance and requiring dose increases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 420 of 1136

420. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for amiloride 5 mg daily for a patient who also takes lisinopril 20 mg daily. What drug interaction concern should the technician flag?

Both amiloride and lisinopril independently increase serum potassium levels, and the combination significantly raises the risk of hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiloride reduces the antihypertensive effect of lisinopril through sodium retention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril increases renal clearance of amiloride, making it ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination causes excessive potassium loss leading to hypokalemia and muscle weakness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 421 of 1136

421. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily for bipolar disorder receives a new prescription for erythromycin 500 mg four times daily for a skin infection. The technician sees a critical interaction alert. What outcome is most likely if this interaction is not addressed?

Carbamazepine serum levels will increase due to CYP3A4 inhibition by erythromycin, potentially causing ataxia, diplopia, and nystagmus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Erythromycin levels will drop below therapeutic range due to CYP3A4 induction by carbamazepine, causing treatment failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs will be unaffected because the interaction only occurs with clarithromycin, not erythromycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine will enhance the QT-prolonging effect of erythromycin but will not alter drug levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 422 of 1136

422. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy receives a prescription for vardenafil 10 mg as needed for a patient whose medication history includes isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg three times daily. The technician recalls the sildenafil-nitrate interaction. Does the same concern apply to vardenafil?

Yes, the contraindication applies to all PDE-5 inhibitors including vardenafil with any nitrate, due to the same mechanism of excessive cyclic GMP-mediated vasodilation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, vardenafil has a shorter half-life than sildenafil and can be safely used with a 6-hour separation from nitrates

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The interaction only applies to sildenafil because it was the first PDE-5 inhibitor and has the strongest vasodilatory effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vardenafil can be used with long-acting nitrates but not with sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 423 of 1136

423. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient’s prescription reads: insulin lispro (Humalog) 8 units subcutaneously before each meal. The patient asks whether the units measured on the insulin pen are the same as units drawn in a syringe. What is the correct response?

Yes, one unit on the insulin pen dial equals one unit drawn in a U-100 insulin syringe; the measurement is the same

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, pen units are concentrated and equal 1.5 times the units in a standard syringe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pen units are less concentrated than syringe units, so the patient needs to dial more units on the pen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The conversion depends on the needle gauge used with the pen device

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 424 of 1136

424. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber writes for a topical corticosteroid for a patient with eczema on the hands. The patient works as a mechanic and washes their hands frequently throughout the day. Which dosage form would provide the longest skin contact time for this patient?

Ointment, because its occlusive, greasy base resists being washed off and provides superior skin adherence

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cream, because its water-based formulation absorbs quickly before handwashing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lotion, because its thin consistency allows rapid penetration into skin layers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gel, because its alcohol base evaporates quickly, leaving medication embedded in the skin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 425 of 1136

425. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient receives a new prescription for fluticasone propionate nasal spray, 2 sprays in each nostril once daily. The patient has never used a nasal spray before. Which administration instruction is most important for the pharmacy team to emphasize?

Aim the spray tip toward the outer wall of the nostril (away from the septum) and breathe in gently to avoid nosebleeds and septal irritation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tilt the head far back and spray directly upward to reach the sinus cavities

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sniff forcefully during each spray to ensure the medication reaches the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alternate nostrils with each spray to prevent the medication from accumulating in one side

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 426 of 1136

426. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual tablets PRN for chest pain. A patient asks why this tablet must be placed under the tongue instead of swallowed. What is the primary pharmacological reason?

Sublingual administration allows rapid absorption through the highly vascular mucosa, bypassing first-pass hepatic metabolism that would largely inactivate the drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablet is designed to dissolve only in the acidic environment under the tongue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Swallowing the tablet would cause severe stomach irritation and ulceration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The sublingual route delivers the drug to the coronary arteries more directly than oral administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 427 of 1136

427. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for buccal testosterone film for a male patient with hypogonadism. The patient is confused about the difference between buccal and sublingual administration. Which explanation correctly distinguishes the two routes?

Buccal products are placed between the upper gum and cheek where they adhere and release medication slowly, while sublingual products dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Buccal and sublingual are interchangeable terms for the same administration site under the tongue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Buccal products are swallowed after dissolving in the mouth, while sublingual products are absorbed through mucosa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual products are placed against the cheek for extended release, while buccal products go under the tongue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 428 of 1136

428. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is being transitioned from oral risperidone to paliperidone palmitate (Invega Sustenna) long-acting injectable. The patient asks how often they will need injections. What is the standard maintenance dosing interval for this medication?

Once monthly after the initial loading dose regimen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every two weeks for the duration of therapy

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Every three months following two initial monthly injections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Once weekly for the first month, then biweekly maintenance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 429 of 1136

429. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is comparing two insulin prescriptions: one for insulin glargine (Lantus) U-100 and another for insulin glargine (Toujeo) U-300. Both prescriptions order 30 units at bedtime. How does the volume injected differ between these two products?

Toujeo U-300 delivers 30 units in 0.1 mL, while Lantus U-100 delivers 30 units in 0.3 mL, because U-300 is three times more concentrated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both deliver the same volume because the insulin unit is standardized regardless of concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Toujeo delivers 30 units in 0.3 mL and Lantus in 0.1 mL because U-100 is more concentrated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Toujeo requires 90 units to be dialed to equal 30 units of Lantus due to the concentration difference

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 430 of 1136

430. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A dermatologist prescribes a topical antifungal for a patient with tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) between the toes. The prescription does not specify a dosage form. Which formulation is most appropriate for application between the toes?

Cream, because it spreads easily in skin folds and does not trap excess moisture like an ointment would

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ointment, because its occlusive barrier provides the strongest antifungal contact

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Paste, because its thick consistency stays in place between the toes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppository, because it maintains prolonged contact in enclosed body areas

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 431 of 1136

431. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy receives a prescription for aripiprazole long-acting injectable (Abilify Maintena) 400 mg intramuscularly once monthly. The technician needs to reconstitute the vial. What is a critical consideration when preparing this product compared to standard injectable medications?

The reconstituted suspension must be vigorously shaken until uniform and administered immediately because the drug settles rapidly after reconstitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The product must be diluted in 100 mL of normal saline and administered as a 30-minute IV infusion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The reconstituted solution is clear and colorless; any particulate matter indicates contamination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The vial must be refrigerated for 24 hours after reconstitution before the injection can be administered

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 432 of 1136

432. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription reads: fentanyl buccal tablet (Fentora) 200 mcg, place one tablet between the cheek and gum as needed for breakthrough cancer pain. The patient accidentally swallows the tablet whole. What impact does this have on the medication’s effectiveness?

Significantly reduced effectiveness because fentanyl undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism when swallowed, resulting in much lower bioavailability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No impact because fentanyl is equally absorbed through the GI tract and buccal mucosa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased effectiveness because gastric acid enhances fentanyl absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dangerous overdose because oral fentanyl absorption is faster than buccal absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 433 of 1136

433. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient calls the pharmacy three days after abruptly stopping paroxetine 40 mg daily. The patient reports dizziness, electric shock sensations in the head, irritability, and nausea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

SSRI discontinuation syndrome caused by the sudden cessation of paroxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from residual paroxetine interacting with dietary tyramine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Paroxetine withdrawal seizures requiring emergency benzodiazepine treatment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic reaction to inactive ingredients remaining in the patient's system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 434 of 1136

434. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on methotrexate 15 mg weekly for rheumatoid arthritis presents a prescription for routine lab work. Which laboratory test is most critical for monitoring methotrexate’s most serious organ-specific toxicity with long-term use?

Liver function tests (AST, ALT) to monitor for hepatotoxicity and hepatic fibrosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serum creatinine only, because methotrexate is exclusively nephrotoxic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hemoglobin A1c, because methotrexate causes drug-induced diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), because methotrexate suppresses thyroid function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 435 of 1136

435. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on amiodarone 200 mg daily for atrial fibrillation reports at the pharmacy that they have noticed increasing fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past month. Which organ system is most likely being affected by amiodarone?

The thyroid gland, because amiodarone can cause hypothyroidism due to its high iodine content and effects on thyroid hormone metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The adrenal glands, because amiodarone suppresses cortisol production

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pancreas, because amiodarone induces insulin resistance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The kidneys, because amiodarone causes progressive renal insufficiency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 436 of 1136

436. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking amiodarone 400 mg daily for three years presents with progressive dyspnea and a dry, nonproductive cough. Chest imaging reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely amiodarone-related cause of these findings?

Amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as interstitial pneumonitis or pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone-induced heart failure with pulmonary edema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Opportunistic lung infection caused by amiodarone-related immunosuppression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic bronchospasm triggered by the iodine component of amiodarone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 437 of 1136

437. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is reviewing counseling materials for a patient starting alendronate (Fosamax) 70 mg weekly for osteoporosis. Which administration instruction is most important to prevent a well-known adverse effect of this medication?

Take the tablet with a full glass of plain water first thing in the morning, then remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ulceration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the tablet at bedtime with milk to buffer the medication and protect the stomach lining

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce to improve absorption and reduce GI side effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the tablet with orange juice to enhance calcium absorption and prevent esophageal damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 438 of 1136

438. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking adalimumab (Humira) for rheumatoid arthritis develops a persistent cough, fever, and night sweats. The physician orders a tuberculin skin test, which is positive. Why are TNF inhibitor patients at particular risk for this infection?

TNF-alpha is essential for maintaining granuloma integrity that contains latent tuberculosis, and inhibiting TNF allows reactivation of dormant TB infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adalimumab directly suppresses T-cell function, which is the primary defense against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TNF inhibitors cause neutropenia, which eliminates the first-line defense against tuberculosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adalimumab cross-reacts with mycobacterial cell wall proteins, promoting bacterial growth

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 439 of 1136

439. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking venlafaxine XR 225 mg daily for depression reports that they missed three consecutive doses due to travel. They now experience severe dizziness, headache, nausea, and vivid nightmares. What is the most likely explanation?

Discontinuation syndrome, which occurs with SNRIs when doses are missed or the medication is stopped abruptly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome caused by a rebound surge in serotonin activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertensive crisis from sudden norepinephrine release after drug clearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An unrelated viral illness coinciding with the missed doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 440 of 1136

440. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient picks up a prescription for risedronate (Actonel) 35 mg weekly. The patient asks why the pharmacy label warns against lying down after taking the tablet. What adverse effect does this instruction help prevent?

Esophageal erosion and ulceration, which can occur when the bisphosphonate tablet remains in prolonged contact with the esophageal lining

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspiration pneumonia from tablet fragments entering the airway while supine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe gastric bleeding caused by the tablet dissolving too slowly in a horizontal position

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Orthostatic hypotension that is worsened by the vasodilatory effects of bisphosphonates

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 441 of 1136

441. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on etanercept (Enbrel) for psoriatic arthritis develops a fever of 102.5 degrees F and has an elevated white blood cell count. The physician suspects a serious bacterial infection. What characteristic of TNF inhibitor therapy makes this patient’s infection management particularly concerning?

TNF inhibitors blunt the immune response to infection, meaning the infection may be more advanced than the clinical symptoms suggest, and the typical inflammatory markers may be unreliable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Etanercept is bacteriostatic, which interferes with the action of bactericidal antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TNF inhibitors cause permanent immune suppression that persists even after stopping the drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Etanercept must be continued during the infection to prevent a cytokine storm upon discontinuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 442 of 1136

442. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking methotrexate 20 mg weekly for psoriasis is found to have an elevated ALT of 180 U/L (normal: 7-56 U/L) on routine labs. The patient also takes daily folic acid 1 mg. What is the role of folic acid supplementation in the context of methotrexate hepatotoxicity?

Folic acid supplementation reduces the incidence of methotrexate-related hepatotoxicity and other adverse effects but does not eliminate the risk entirely, and monitoring must continue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid completely prevents methotrexate hepatotoxicity, so the elevated ALT indicates a different cause

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid is taken only to prevent methotrexate-related anemia and has no effect on liver toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid worsens hepatotoxicity by competing with methotrexate for the same hepatic enzymes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 443 of 1136

443. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes a prescription for colchicine 0.6 mg with instructions to take two tablets at the first sign of a gout flare, then one tablet one hour later. For which condition is this specific dosing regimen designed?

Acute gout flare, where colchicine is used to reduce inflammation by inhibiting neutrophil migration to the affected joint

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic gout prophylaxis requiring a loading dose before maintenance therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Familial Mediterranean fever, which uses the same acute dosing protocol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pericarditis, where colchicine is combined with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 444 of 1136

444. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician sees three different prescriptions for spironolactone from three different specialists: a cardiologist prescribing 25 mg daily, a dermatologist prescribing 100 mg daily, and a hepatologist prescribing 100 mg daily. Which set of indications best matches these three prescriptions?

Heart failure (cardiologist), hormonal acne (dermatologist), and ascites from cirrhosis (hepatologist)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension (cardiologist), alopecia (dermatologist), and hepatitis treatment (hepatologist)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atrial fibrillation (cardiologist), psoriasis (dermatologist), and gallstone dissolution (hepatologist)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral edema (cardiologist), skin infection (dermatologist), and liver cancer (hepatologist)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 445 of 1136

445. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents a prescription for topiramate 50 mg twice daily. The patient tells the pharmacy technician the medication is for migraine prevention, not seizures. Is this a recognized use of topiramate?

Yes, topiramate is FDA-approved for both seizure disorders and migraine prophylaxis, and the dosing can differ between the two indications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, topiramate is only approved for seizure disorders, and this would be an inappropriate off-label use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only at doses above 200 mg daily, so 100 mg daily is subtherapeutic for migraines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, topiramate is approved for migraines only as a combination product with phentermine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 446 of 1136

446. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes prescriptions for doxycycline 100 mg from three different patients: one for acne vulgaris (twice daily), one for malaria prophylaxis (once daily, starting 2 days before travel), and one for Lyme disease (twice daily for 21 days). Which statement about these prescriptions is correct?

All three are recognized indications for doxycycline, with dosing and duration varying by condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only the Lyme disease prescription is correct; doxycycline is not used for acne or malaria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The malaria prophylaxis prescription is incorrect because doxycycline must be started 2 weeks before travel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The acne prescription is incorrect because doxycycline requires a loading dose of 200 mg for dermatologic use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 447 of 1136

447. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing colchicine 0.6 mg daily on a chronic basis. The patient does not have a history of gout in the system. The technician checks with the pharmacist, who confirms the prescription is appropriate. Which alternative indication for chronic low-dose colchicine most likely explains this prescription?

Familial Mediterranean fever, for which colchicine is a first-line chronic therapy to prevent inflammatory episodes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic constipation, because colchicine stimulates intestinal motility at low doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Osteoarthritis, because colchicine provides long-term cartilage protection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic kidney disease, because colchicine prevents calcium oxalate stone formation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 448 of 1136

448. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing an IV admixture and needs to add potassium chloride and a multivitamin to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) bag. The pharmacist instructs the technician to add the potassium chloride first and mix thoroughly before adding the multivitamin. What is the primary reason for this specific order of addition?

Certain electrolytes must be diluted before adding vitamins and other components to prevent precipitation and incompatibilities within the admixture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium chloride is heavier than multivitamins and must be at the bottom of the bag for proper layering

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Multivitamins react with the bag's plastic only when potassium is not present to buffer the solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The order of mixing has no clinical significance and is merely institutional preference

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 449 of 1136

449. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing nitroprusside (Nipride) for IV infusion. The pharmacist instructs the technician to wrap the IV bag and tubing in opaque material after preparation. What is the scientific basis for this requirement?

Nitroprusside degrades rapidly when exposed to light, forming cyanide and other toxic byproducts that make the solution unsafe for administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Light exposure changes the osmolality of the solution, making it hypertonic and irritating to veins

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The opaque covering prevents temperature fluctuations that would affect drug potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Light protection is required by USP Chapter 797 for all IV preparations regardless of the drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 450 of 1136

450. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician retrieves a frozen premixed bag of piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) from the freezer for a patient who needs it within the hour. The nurse calls asking if the bag can be thawed in a microwave to speed up the process. What is the correct response?

Frozen premixed bags should not be thawed by microwave because uneven heating can degrade the drug and compromise the container integrity; thawing at room temperature or under refrigeration is required

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Microwave thawing is acceptable at 50% power for no more than 2 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The bag should be thawed by immersing it in boiling water for rapid, uniform heating

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Frozen bags can only be thawed in the pharmacy's designated warming cabinet at 60 degrees C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 451 of 1136

451. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is asked to prepare an IV infusion of amphotericin B deoxycholate (Fungizone). The pharmacist specifies that the drug must be reconstituted with sterile water for injection and then diluted ONLY in D5W (5% dextrose in water). What happens if the technician mistakenly uses normal saline (0.9% NaCl) for dilution?

Amphotericin B deoxycholate will precipitate out of solution in the presence of sodium chloride, rendering the preparation unusable and potentially dangerous

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Normal saline increases the infusion rate of amphotericin B, causing acute infusion reactions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sodium chloride converts amphotericin B to a nephrotoxic metabolite during the infusion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The drug remains in solution but loses 50% of its antifungal potency within 30 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 452 of 1136

452. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician notices that a bag of premixed metronidazole 500 mg/100 mL IV solution has been left on the counter exposed to fluorescent lighting for 8 hours. The solution appears to have a slightly darker color than a freshly opened bag. What action should the technician take?

Discard the bag because metronidazole IV is light-sensitive and prolonged light exposure causes degradation, as indicated by the color change

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Administer the bag because metronidazole color changes are normal and do not affect potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the bag back in the refrigerator for 24 hours to reverse the light-induced degradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Filter the solution through a 0.22-micron filter to remove degradation products before use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 453 of 1136

453. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient stabilized on warfarin 5 mg daily begins drinking 16 ounces of cranberry juice daily to prevent urinary tract infections. The pharmacy technician notices the patient’s INR has increased from 2.5 to 4.8 at a recent clinic visit. What is the most likely cause of the elevated INR?

Cranberry juice can inhibit CYP2C9 metabolism of warfarin, increasing its anticoagulant effect and raising the INR

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cranberry juice increases vitamin K intake, which enhances warfarin activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cranberry juice chelates warfarin in the GI tract, causing delayed but increased absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cranberry juice induces CYP3A4, redirecting warfarin metabolism through a more potent pathway

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 454 of 1136

454. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking amitriptyline 75 mg at bedtime for neuropathic pain receives a new prescription for oxybutynin 5 mg twice daily for overactive bladder. The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist about which potential interaction?

Additive anticholinergic effects that can cause severe dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, and tachycardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome risk from combined serotonergic activity of both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

QT prolongation from additive sodium channel blockade in the heart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreased effectiveness of oxybutynin due to competition for muscarinic receptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 455 of 1136

455. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking phenelzine 15 mg three times daily for treatment-resistant depression purchases a block of aged cheddar cheese and a bottle of red wine at the store. The patient mentions to the pharmacy technician that they plan to enjoy both this evening. Why should the technician urgently refer this patient to the pharmacist?

Phenelzine is an MAOI, and aged cheese and red wine contain high levels of tyramine, which can trigger a life-threatening hypertensive crisis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aged cheese and red wine contain histamine, which can cause severe allergic reactions when combined with MAOIs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Red wine induces CYP2D6, rapidly metabolizing phenelzine and causing dangerous withdrawal symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dairy products chelate phenelzine in the gut, causing a sudden surge of unabsorbed drug to enter the bloodstream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 456 of 1136

456. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A transplant patient stabilized on cyclosporine presents to the pharmacy asking about drinking grapefruit juice with breakfast. The pharmacy technician should refer the patient to the pharmacist because grapefruit juice can cause which effect on cyclosporine?

Grapefruit juice inhibits intestinal CYP3A4, increasing cyclosporine blood levels and the risk of nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice increases renal clearance of cyclosporine, reducing its immunosuppressive effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice binds to cyclosporine in the stomach, preventing absorption entirely

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Grapefruit juice activates hepatic CYP1A2, converting cyclosporine to a toxic metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 457 of 1136

457. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician is processing a new prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for a patient whose medication profile includes tizanidine 4 mg three times daily. What is the primary concern with this drug combination?

Ciprofloxacin strongly inhibits CYP1A2, which is the primary metabolic pathway for tizanidine, potentially causing dangerous hypotension and excessive sedation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tizanidine reduces the absorption of ciprofloxacin by chelation in the GI tract, rendering the antibiotic ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs prolong the QT interval through the same ion channel, creating a high risk of torsades de pointes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin induces P-glycoprotein efflux of tizanidine, causing subtherapeutic muscle relaxant levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 458 of 1136

458. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking atorvastatin 40 mg daily is prescribed itraconazole 200 mg daily for a toenail fungal infection. What drug interaction should the pharmacy technician flag for pharmacist review?

Itraconazole is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor that significantly increases atorvastatin levels, raising the risk of rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin decreases the antifungal activity of itraconazole by inducing hepatic glucuronidation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for renal tubular secretion, causing accumulation of itraconazole to toxic levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Itraconazole displaces atorvastatin from albumin binding sites, causing a transient but harmless spike in free drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 459 of 1136

459. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A prescriber writes for probenecid 500 mg twice daily to be taken concurrently with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for a patient with a severe infection. The pharmacy technician questions why probenecid is included. What is the pharmacological rationale for this combination?

Probenecid blocks renal tubular secretion of amoxicillin, increasing and prolonging its blood levels to enhance antibacterial efficacy

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Probenecid inhibits CYP3A4 metabolism of amoxicillin, producing higher tissue concentrations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Probenecid alkalinizes the urine, converting amoxicillin to a more active antimicrobial form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Probenecid prevents amoxicillin-induced hyperuricemia by blocking uric acid reabsorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 460 of 1136

460. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient takes levothyroxine 100 mcg every morning at 7:00 AM. The patient recently started ferrous sulfate 325 mg twice daily for iron-deficiency anemia and takes the first dose at 7:00 AM with the levothyroxine. At a follow-up visit, the patient’s TSH has risen from 2.5 to 8.1 mIU/L. What is the most likely explanation?

Iron salts form insoluble complexes with levothyroxine in the GI tract, significantly reducing levothyroxine absorption and causing rising TSH levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron stimulates hepatic CYP3A4, accelerating the metabolism of levothyroxine and lowering circulating T4 levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ferrous sulfate increases the conversion of T4 to reverse T3, making the levothyroxine dose ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron competes with levothyroxine for binding to thyroid-binding globulin in the blood, displacing T4 from protein

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 461 of 1136

461. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on tranylcypromine 10 mg twice daily for depression tells the pharmacy technician they ate a large portion of sauerkraut and salami for lunch and now have a severe throbbing headache. What should the technician do?

Refer the patient to the pharmacist immediately because the headache may indicate a hypertensive crisis from tyramine-rich foods interacting with the MAOI

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reassure the patient that the headache is a common side effect of tranylcypromine unrelated to food

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient take acetaminophen for the headache and avoid those foods in the future

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to skip the next dose of tranylcypromine to reduce the drug level in their system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 462 of 1136

462. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking simvastatin 40 mg daily at bedtime receives a new prescription for ketoconazole 200 mg daily for a systemic fungal infection. Why should the pharmacy technician alert the pharmacist before dispensing?

Ketoconazole is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor that can dramatically increase simvastatin levels, significantly raising the risk of rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simvastatin reduces the antifungal efficacy of ketoconazole by increasing hepatic clearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ketoconazole and simvastatin both require acidic gastric pH for absorption and compete for uptake

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are hepatotoxic through identical mechanisms, making liver damage inevitable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 463 of 1136

463. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing nortriptyline 50 mg at bedtime, benztropine 1 mg twice daily, and diphenhydramine 25 mg at bedtime (OTC). The patient is a 78-year-old with Parkinson disease. Which concern requires the most urgent pharmacist consultation?

Triple anticholinergic burden from all three medications, which in an elderly patient creates high risk for delirium, falls, urinary retention, and heat stroke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from the combination of nortriptyline and diphenhydramine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Worsening of Parkinson disease because all three medications block dopamine receptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Additive CNS depression requiring naloxone reversal if the patient becomes obtunded

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 464 of 1136

464. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on selegiline 10 mg daily (oral) for Parkinson disease asks the pharmacy technician whether it is safe to take an OTC cold product containing pseudoephedrine. What interaction concern should the technician communicate to the pharmacist?

Selegiline is an MAO-B inhibitor that at higher oral doses can lose selectivity, and combining with sympathomimetics like pseudoephedrine can precipitate a hypertensive crisis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pseudoephedrine blocks dopamine reuptake, causing excessive dopaminergic stimulation and psychosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Selegiline inhibits pseudoephedrine metabolism through CYP2D6, causing pseudoephedrine toxicity

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Both drugs lower blood pressure through different mechanisms, creating a risk of severe hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 465 of 1136

465. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient with chronic angina is prescribed nitroglycerin in multiple formulations: sublingual tablets 0.4 mg PRN for acute chest pain, a transdermal patch 0.4 mg/hr applied daily for 12 hours, and 2% ointment applied to the chest. Which statement about these formulations is correct?

The sublingual tablet provides rapid onset within 1 to 3 minutes for acute episodes, while the patch and ointment provide sustained release for prophylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The transdermal patch should be applied for 24 hours continuously to maintain steady blood levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The 2% ointment is applied sublingually as an alternative to the tablet for faster absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three formulations have the same onset of action and can be used interchangeably for acute chest pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 466 of 1136

466. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber orders nitroglycerin IV infusion 50 mg in 250 mL D5W for a patient in the ICU. The pharmacist asks the technician to prepare the admixture. Which container material must be used, and why?

Glass bottles or non-PVC bags must be used because nitroglycerin is significantly adsorbed onto standard PVC (polyvinyl chloride) tubing and bags, reducing the delivered dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Standard PVC bags are acceptable because nitroglycerin is chemically stable in any IV container at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polypropylene containers must be used because nitroglycerin reacts with glass to form toxic nitrite compounds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amber-colored PVC bags are required because nitroglycerin is photosensitive but compatible with PVC plastic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 467 of 1136

467. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is being tapered off prednisone after a 3-week course starting at 40 mg daily. The prescriber writes a taper schedule reducing by 10 mg every 5 days. Which prednisone tablet strengths will the pharmacy technician most likely need to dispense to fill this taper?

10 mg and 5 mg tablets to accommodate doses of 40 mg, 30 mg, 20 mg, 10 mg, and possibly 5 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only 40 mg tablets, with the patient instructed to split them as the dose decreases

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20 mg tablets only, since the starting dose and taper can be managed with this single strength

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 mg tablets exclusively to allow the most precise dose adjustments throughout the taper

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 468 of 1136

468. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for ofloxacin 0.3% ophthalmic solution and a separate prescription for ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution for the same patient. The patient asks why they cannot use the eye drops in the ear or the ear drops in the eye. Which statement is correct?

Ophthalmic solutions can generally be used in the ear, but otic solutions must never be used in the eye because they are not manufactured to ophthalmic sterility and pH standards

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both formulations are identical and can be used interchangeably in either the eye or the ear

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Otic solutions can be used in the eye but ophthalmic solutions are too concentrated for the ear canal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither formulation should be substituted because the active drug concentration differs between ophthalmic and otic versions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 469 of 1136

469. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy stocks promethazine 12.5 mg and 25 mg rectal suppositories. The label states to store between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius. A technician finds a box of these suppositories left on the pharmacy counter overnight at room temperature (approximately 25 degrees Celsius). What is the appropriate action?

The suppositories should not be dispensed because prolonged exposure to room temperature may cause the suppository base to soften or melt, altering drug release and dosing accuracy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The suppositories are acceptable to dispense as long as they are returned to the refrigerator for at least 2 hours before use

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Suppositories are always stable at room temperature and the refrigeration recommendation is only for patient comfort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The suppositories can be dispensed if the outer packaging appears intact, regardless of temperature exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 470 of 1136

470. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient receives a prescription for omeprazole 20 mg delayed-release capsules with instructions to take one capsule daily before breakfast. The patient reports difficulty swallowing capsules and asks whether the capsule can be opened and the contents mixed with applesauce. What should the pharmacy technician convey?

The delayed-release capsule can be opened and the enteric-coated granules sprinkled on applesauce, but the granules must not be crushed or chewed

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The capsule must be swallowed whole and cannot be opened under any circumstances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The capsule can be opened and the contents dissolved in hot water for easier administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The granules inside the capsule can be crushed and mixed with any food without affecting drug release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 471 of 1136

471. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber writes for a methylprednisolone dose pack (Medrol Dosepak) for a patient with an acute allergic reaction. The dose pack contains 4 mg tablets with a 6-day tapering schedule. How many total tablets are in the dose pack?

21 tablets

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14 tablets

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28 tablets

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30 tablets

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Question 472 of 1136

472. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone (Ciprodex) otic suspension and a separate prescription for ciprofloxacin 0.3% ophthalmic solution. The patient has both an ear infection and a corneal ulcer. Which formulation consideration is most important for the technician to verify?

The otic suspension (Ciprodex) contains dexamethasone and must not be used in the eye; the ophthalmic solution is sterile for ocular use and the two are not interchangeable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both formulations contain the same concentration of ciprofloxacin and can be used interchangeably in either location

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The ophthalmic solution cannot be used in the ear because it will cause ototoxicity from the preservative

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The otic suspension should be substituted for the ophthalmic solution because it contains a steroid that will help the corneal ulcer heal faster

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 473 of 1136

473. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient receives a prescription for diclofenac sodium 1% topical gel (Voltaren) for knee osteoarthritis. The patient also asks the technician about purchasing OTC diclofenac sodium 1% gel. What distinction should the technician recognize?

Prescription and OTC diclofenac sodium 1% topical gel contain the same active ingredient and strength; the OTC version was approved for the same indication without a prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The OTC version contains a lower concentration of diclofenac and is not equivalent to the prescription product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescription version is an ointment while the OTC version is a gel, making them non-interchangeable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The OTC diclofenac gel may only be used on the hands and is not approved for knee application

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 474 of 1136

474. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is asked to prepare nitroglycerin 2% ointment for a patient. The pharmacist instructs the technician to measure 1 inch of ointment from the tube onto the dosing paper. Approximately how many milligrams of nitroglycerin does 1 inch of the ointment deliver?

Approximately 15 mg

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Approximately 0.4 mg

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Approximately 5 mg

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Approximately 50 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 475 of 1136

475. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppositories. The patient asks if they can take bisacodyl 5 mg enteric-coated tablets orally instead because they prefer oral medication. Which counseling point about the enteric-coated tablets is most important?

Enteric-coated bisacodyl tablets must be swallowed whole and not crushed, chewed, or taken with milk or antacids because these can dissolve the coating prematurely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enteric-coated bisacodyl tablets can be crushed and mixed with water if the patient has difficulty swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bisacodyl enteric-coated tablets should always be taken with milk to reduce stomach irritation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The enteric coating on bisacodyl is purely for taste masking and has no impact on drug release or safety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 476 of 1136

476. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient’s prescription for dexamethasone calls for a 12-day taper starting at 6 mg daily, decreasing by 0.75 mg every 2 days. The pharmacy stocks dexamethasone in 0.5 mg, 0.75 mg, 1.5 mg, and 4 mg tablet strengths. Which combination of tablet strengths would most efficiently fill this taper with the fewest tablets per dose?

4 mg and 1.5 mg tablets for higher doses, transitioning to 1.5 mg and 0.75 mg tablets as the dose decreases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only 0.75 mg tablets for the entire taper so the patient uses a single strength throughout

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

4 mg tablets exclusively, with the patient cutting tablets for smaller doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

0.5 mg tablets only, ensuring exact doses at every step of the taper

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 477 of 1136

477. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking furosemide 80 mg twice daily for congestive heart failure reports new hearing loss and a ringing sensation in both ears. The pharmacy technician should recognize this as which known adverse effect of loop diuretics?

Ototoxicity, which is a dose-related adverse effect of loop diuretics that can cause tinnitus and hearing impairment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nephrotoxicity causing secondary auditory nerve damage from uremia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Electrolyte-induced vertigo from low sodium levels unrelated to direct ear damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An allergic reaction to the sulfonamide component of furosemide causing ear inflammation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 478 of 1136

478. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient who has been taking lisinopril 20 mg daily for 6 months presents to the pharmacy with facial and lip swelling that developed over the past few hours. The patient has no known allergies and has not changed any other medications. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of lisinopril that can occur at any point during therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An allergic reaction to the inactive ingredients in the specific manufacturer's tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluid retention from worsening heart failure indicating the lisinopril dose is too low

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A side effect of ACE inhibitor-induced hyperkalemia causing tissue swelling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 479 of 1136

479. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient has been taking metoclopramide 10 mg four times daily for gastroparesis for the past 14 months. The patient’s family member tells the pharmacy technician that the patient has developed involuntary repetitive movements of the tongue and lips. What adverse effect does this most likely represent?

Tardive dyskinesia, an often irreversible movement disorder associated with long-term use of metoclopramide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Akathisia, a reversible restlessness that resolves immediately after stopping the medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Parkinsonism from dopamine receptor upregulation that improves with dose escalation

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Serotonin syndrome from metoclopramide's serotonergic activity causing involuntary muscle contractions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 480 of 1136

480. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 22-year-old female patient picks up a prescription for isotretinoin 40 mg daily for severe cystic acne. The pharmacy technician verifies that the patient is enrolled in the iPLEDGE program. What is the primary reason isotretinoin requires this risk management program?

Isotretinoin is a known teratogen that causes severe birth defects, and the iPLEDGE program ensures pregnancy prevention measures are in place before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isotretinoin is a Schedule II controlled substance with high abuse potential requiring special tracking

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isotretinoin causes irreversible liver failure in most patients, requiring monthly liver transplant assessments

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The iPLEDGE program is voluntary and exists only to track insurance coverage for this expensive medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 481 of 1136

481. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 72-year-old patient taking levofloxacin 500 mg daily for a complicated urinary tract infection calls the pharmacy to report sudden pain and swelling in the back of the ankle while walking. What adverse effect should the pharmacy technician suspect?

Fluoroquinolone-associated tendon damage, which can include tendinitis and tendon rupture, particularly of the Achilles tendon in elderly patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral neuropathy causing referred pain from nerve damage in the lower extremity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Deep vein thrombosis caused by fluoroquinolone-induced platelet aggregation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gout flare triggered by levofloxacin increasing serum uric acid levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 482 of 1136

482. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking ethacrynic acid 50 mg twice daily IV in the hospital also receives tobramycin IV for a serious infection. The patient reports difficulty hearing conversations. Which combination of adverse effects explains this presentation?

Both ethacrynic acid and tobramycin are ototoxic, and their concurrent use has an additive or synergistic risk for hearing loss

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tobramycin reduces renal clearance of ethacrynic acid, causing drug accumulation and central nervous system toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ethacrynic acid potentiates tobramycin's nephrotoxicity, and the hearing loss is caused by uremia from kidney failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The hearing loss is unrelated to either drug and is most likely caused by the patient's underlying infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 483 of 1136

483. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking enalapril 10 mg daily for hypertension develops a persistent, dry, nonproductive cough that has continued for 3 weeks. The patient has no signs of respiratory infection. The prescriber decides to switch the patient to losartan 50 mg daily. What is the pharmacological reason for this change?

The dry cough is caused by ACE inhibitor-induced bradykinin accumulation in the lungs; switching to an ARB like losartan avoids this because ARBs do not affect bradykinin metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Losartan has bronchodilatory properties that actively suppress cough, making it a therapeutic choice for cough management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The cough is caused by enalapril's direct irritation of the airway epithelium, and losartan has a different chemical structure that does not irritate airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ARBs inhibit ACE at a different binding site that does not produce bradykinin, so the cough resolves with the class switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 484 of 1136

484. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 68-year-old patient who has been taking ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for 10 days along with prednisone 20 mg daily for a COPD exacerbation reports bilateral shoulder pain and difficulty raising the arms overhead. What adverse effect combination is most concerning?

Fluoroquinolone-induced tendinitis, with risk significantly increased by concurrent corticosteroid use and age over 60

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Steroid myopathy from prednisone causing proximal muscle weakness that mimics tendon injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin-induced peripheral neuropathy causing referred shoulder pain from cervical nerve involvement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug interaction between ciprofloxacin and prednisone causing calcium depletion and subsequent bone fractures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 485 of 1136

485. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A male patient taking isotretinoin 60 mg daily calls the pharmacy concerned about a nosebleed that will not stop, severely cracked lips, and peeling skin on the hands. He has been on the medication for 2 weeks. Are these symptoms expected?

Yes, these are common dose-related mucocutaneous side effects of isotretinoin, including cheilitis (lip cracking), epistaxis (nosebleeds), and skin dryness/peeling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, these symptoms indicate isotretinoin-induced thrombocytopenia and the patient should go to the emergency room immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, nosebleeds are not associated with isotretinoin and suggest a separate coagulation disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only the lip cracking is expected; the nosebleed and skin peeling indicate an allergic reaction requiring discontinuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 486 of 1136

486. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient profile for a 70-year-old female taking bumetanide 2 mg twice daily IV. The nurse reports the patient is complaining of dizziness and ringing in the ears after each dose. Which factor most likely contributed to the ototoxicity?

Rapid IV administration and high doses of loop diuretics increase the risk of ototoxicity, especially in elderly patients and those with renal impairment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bumetanide is not associated with ototoxicity; only furosemide and ethacrynic acid carry this risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The dizziness and tinnitus are caused by orthostatic hypotension from volume depletion, not ototoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ototoxicity from loop diuretics only occurs with oral formulations because of first-pass metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 487 of 1136

487. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking ramipril 10 mg daily for 2 years develops swelling of the tongue while eating dinner. The patient has no known food allergies and has not started any new medications. Emergency medical services are called. What characteristic of ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema makes it particularly dangerous compared to allergic angioedema?

ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema is bradykinin-mediated and does not respond to epinephrine, antihistamines, or corticosteroids as effectively as histamine-mediated allergic angioedema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitor angioedema always affects the extremities first before progressing to the airway, giving less warning time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitor angioedema causes simultaneous urticaria and bronchospasm, making it harder to treat than isolated allergic swelling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitor angioedema recurs every 24 hours in cycles until the drug is fully eliminated from the body over weeks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 488 of 1136

488. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking moxifloxacin 400 mg daily for community-acquired pneumonia reports new tingling and numbness in both feet after 5 days of therapy. What FDA-warned adverse effect of fluoroquinolones does this most likely represent?

Peripheral neuropathy, which is an FDA-warned adverse effect of fluoroquinolones that may be irreversible

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diabetic neuropathy unmasked by the antibiotic's interference with glucose metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by moxifloxacin's inhibition of intrinsic factor in the stomach

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Temporary paresthesia from the inactive ingredients in the moxifloxacin tablet formulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 489 of 1136

489. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes a prescription for hydroxychloroquine 200 mg twice daily. The patient states the medication is for lupus. The technician also recalls dispensing hydroxychloroquine for another patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement about hydroxychloroquine’s approved indications is correct?

Hydroxychloroquine is FDA-approved for both systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and rheumatoid arthritis, in addition to its original indication for malaria prophylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydroxychloroquine is only FDA-approved for malaria prophylaxis; its use in lupus and rheumatoid arthritis is entirely off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydroxychloroquine is approved for SLE but not for rheumatoid arthritis, where it is used off-label as a last resort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydroxychloroquine is approved only for discoid lupus, not systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 490 of 1136

490. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician sees two separate prescriptions for finasteride: one for a 65-year-old male at 5 mg daily and another for a 35-year-old male at 1 mg daily. What are the most likely indications for each prescription?

Finasteride 5 mg is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), while finasteride 1 mg is indicated for male pattern hair loss (androgenetic alopecia)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both doses treat BPH; the 1 mg dose is simply a lower starting dose for younger patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Finasteride 5 mg is for prostate cancer treatment, and 1 mg is for BPH symptom management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Finasteride 1 mg is for testosterone replacement in hypogonadism, and 5 mg is for BPH

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 491 of 1136

491. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes three prescriptions for ondansetron on the same day: an 8 mg IV dose for a chemotherapy patient, a 4 mg orally disintegrating tablet (ODT) for a post-surgical patient, and a 4 mg tablet for a pregnant patient with severe nausea. Which statement best describes ondansetron’s indication profile?

Ondansetron is FDA-approved for prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery; its use in pregnancy-related nausea is off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron is FDA-approved for all three scenarios, including pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron is only approved for chemotherapy-induced nausea; post-surgical and pregnancy uses are both off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron is FDA-approved for pregnancy-related nausea but used off-label for chemotherapy-induced nausea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 492 of 1136

492. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient picks up a prescription for carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily. The patient mentions they are taking it for heart failure, but they thought beta-blockers were bad for heart failure. What should the pharmacy technician understand about carvedilol’s approved indications?

Carvedilol is FDA-approved for both heart failure and hypertension; it is one of the few beta-blockers proven to improve survival in heart failure patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol is only approved for hypertension; its use in heart failure is investigational

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol is approved for heart failure only when combined with a diuretic, and it has no standalone indication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol is only used for heart failure as a last resort when ACE inhibitors and diuretics have failed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 493 of 1136

493. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing minoxidil 2.5 mg oral tablet daily and minoxidil 5% topical foam applied to the scalp twice daily. The oral tablet was prescribed by a cardiologist and the topical foam was purchased OTC. What are the respective indications for these two formulations?

Oral minoxidil is indicated for severe, refractory hypertension, while topical minoxidil is indicated for androgenetic alopecia (pattern hair loss)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both formulations treat hair loss; the oral form is a stronger version prescribed when topical therapy fails

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral minoxidil treats alopecia areata (autoimmune hair loss), while topical minoxidil treats androgenetic alopecia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral minoxidil treats pulmonary arterial hypertension, while topical minoxidil treats scalp psoriasis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 494 of 1136

494. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician dispenses naltrexone 50 mg tablets to one patient for alcohol use disorder and naltrexone 380 mg IM injection (Vivitrol) to another patient for opioid dependence. What do these prescriptions reflect about naltrexone’s indications?

Naltrexone is FDA-approved for both alcohol use disorder and opioid dependence prevention; oral and injectable forms are used across both indications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral naltrexone is only approved for alcohol dependence, while the injectable form is only approved for opioid dependence

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naltrexone is only FDA-approved for opioid overdose reversal; both uses described are off-label

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naltrexone 50 mg oral is for pain management, while Vivitrol injection is for alcohol and opioid dependence

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Question 495 of 1136

495. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient who had a coronary stent placed 3 months ago presents prescriptions for aspirin 81 mg daily and clopidogrel 75 mg daily. A new cardiologist also prescribes prasugrel 10 mg daily. What therapeutic duplication concern should the pharmacy technician identify?

Clopidogrel and prasugrel are both P2Y12 platelet inhibitors, and using two agents from this class simultaneously is a therapeutic duplication that increases bleeding risk

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Aspirin and clopidogrel are the duplication because both inhibit platelet aggregation through the same mechanism

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All three medications are considered appropriate triple antiplatelet therapy after coronary stent placement

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Prasugrel duplicates aspirin's mechanism by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase-1 in platelets

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Question 496 of 1136

496. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication profile shows naproxen 500 mg twice daily (prescription) for chronic back pain. The patient is purchasing OTC ibuprofen 200 mg for a headache. The pharmacy technician should flag this for the pharmacist because of which concern?

Naproxen and ibuprofen are both NSAIDs, and concurrent use is a therapeutic duplication that increases the risk of GI bleeding, renal injury, and cardiovascular events

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Ibuprofen and naproxen cannot be taken on the same day because they compete for absorption in the small intestine

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OTC ibuprofen at 200 mg is too low a dose to cause any interaction with prescription naproxen

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The combination is acceptable because naproxen treats inflammation while ibuprofen treats pain through a different mechanism

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Question 497 of 1136

497. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient has active prescriptions for tramadol 50 mg every 6 hours PRN for moderate pain and acetaminophen/hydrocodone 325/5 mg every 4 to 6 hours PRN for breakthrough pain. The patient also purchases OTC acetaminophen 500 mg tablets. What overlapping safety concerns should the technician identify?

Two opioid analgesics (tramadol and hydrocodone) represent a therapeutic duplication, and the OTC acetaminophen combined with the acetaminophen in the hydrocodone product creates a risk of exceeding the maximum daily acetaminophen dose

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Only the acetaminophen overlap is a concern; tramadol and hydrocodone work on different pain receptors and are not duplicative

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Only the opioid duplication matters; the acetaminophen amounts are too small to cause liver toxicity

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There are no safety concerns because tramadol is not classified as a true opioid and does not duplicate hydrocodone's effects

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Question 498 of 1136

498. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile that includes prescription meloxicam 15 mg daily, OTC naproxen sodium 220 mg purchased from the front store, and prescription celecoxib 200 mg daily from a rheumatologist. How many therapeutic duplications are present in this profile?

All three are NSAIDs, creating a single category of therapeutic duplication involving three agents from the same drug class

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Two duplications: meloxicam duplicates naproxen, and celecoxib duplicates meloxicam, but celecoxib and naproxen are not duplicates because celecoxib is COX-2 selective

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One duplication between meloxicam and naproxen only, because celecoxib is a different class of anti-inflammatory

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No therapeutic duplications because each NSAID has a unique selectivity profile for different COX enzymes

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Question 499 of 1136

499. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking prescription omeprazole 40 mg daily comes to the pharmacy counter to purchase OTC esomeprazole 20 mg. The patient states that the prescription omeprazole is not fully controlling the heartburn and wants to add the OTC product. What should the technician recognize?

Omeprazole and esomeprazole are both proton pump inhibitors and using two PPIs simultaneously is a therapeutic duplication that should be reviewed by the pharmacist

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This is appropriate because esomeprazole is the S-enantiomer of omeprazole and provides complementary acid suppression

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OTC esomeprazole is safe to add because it is a lower dose and works on a different part of the proton pump

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The combination is acceptable because one is prescription-strength and the other is OTC-strength, so they do not overlap

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Question 500 of 1136

500. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient recovering from a myocardial infarction has prescriptions for aspirin 81 mg daily and ticagrelor 90 mg twice daily (appropriate DAPT). The patient also takes an OTC daily aspirin 325 mg that they have been taking for years. What duplication issue should the technician flag?

The patient is taking two different doses of aspirin (81 mg prescription and 325 mg OTC), creating duplicate aspirin therapy; additionally, the higher OTC dose may reduce ticagrelor's effectiveness

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Aspirin and ticagrelor are the therapeutic duplication because both are antiplatelet agents from the same drug class

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There is no duplication because the 81 mg and 325 mg aspirin serve different purposes in cardiac therapy

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The only concern is that the OTC aspirin exceeds the daily maximum dose of aspirin for cardiac prevention

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Question 501 of 1136

501. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy technician prepares a nitroglycerin IV infusion in a standard PVC bag because the pharmacy has temporarily run out of glass bottles. The pharmacist rejects the preparation. What is the primary stability concern?

Nitroglycerin is significantly adsorbed onto PVC plastic, reducing the amount of drug delivered to the patient by up to 40% to 80%

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Nitroglycerin reacts chemically with PVC to form a toxic degradation product

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PVC bags are not compatible with the D5W diluent required for nitroglycerin infusions

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Nitroglycerin becomes photodegraded more rapidly in transparent PVC bags compared to glass

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Question 502 of 1136

502. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician prepares a compounded sterile preparation (CSP) using aseptic technique in a cleanroom with an ISO 5 primary engineering control within an ISO 7 buffer area. The preparation uses three commercially manufactured sterile components and involves no more than two transfers. According to USP 797, what category is this CSP, and what is the beyond-use date at controlled room temperature?

Category 1 CSP with a beyond-use date of 12 hours at controlled room temperature

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Category 1 CSP with a beyond-use date of 24 hours at controlled room temperature

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Category 2 CSP with a beyond-use date of 48 hours at controlled room temperature

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Category 2 CSP with a beyond-use date of 4 days at controlled room temperature

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Question 503 of 1136

503. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy receives a shipment of varicella (chickenpox) vaccine. The delivery driver reports the cold chain temperature logger shows the vaccines were stored between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius throughout transit. The pharmacy’s vaccine protocol requires varicella vaccine to be stored in the freezer. What action should the technician take?

Quarantine the shipment and notify the pharmacist because varicella vaccine requires frozen storage at minus 15 degrees Celsius or colder, and exposure to refrigerator temperatures may have compromised potency

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Accept the shipment because 2 to 8 degrees Celsius is acceptable for all vaccines during transit

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Place the vaccines in the freezer immediately; brief refrigerator-temperature exposure does not affect live vaccines

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Return the shipment to the distributor only if the temperature exceeded 8 degrees Celsius during transit

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Question 504 of 1136

504. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is tasked with categorizing three CSPs prepared on the same day under USP 797. Preparation A uses three sterile commercial vials and is compounded in a segregated compounding area with an ISO 5 PEC. Preparation B uses four sterile commercial vials and is compounded in a cleanroom with an ISO 5 PEC within an ISO 7 buffer area, with sterility testing documentation. Preparation C is the same as Preparation B but without sterility testing. What are the correct category assignments?

Preparation A is Category 1, Preparation B is Category 2, and Preparation C is Category 1

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All three are Category 1 because they all use sterile starting components

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Preparation A is Category 2, Preparation B is Category 2, and Preparation C is Category 1

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Preparation A is Category 1, and both Preparations B and C are Category 2 regardless of testing

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Question 505 of 1136

505. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician discovers that 20 doses of Hepatitis B vaccine stored in the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius were accidentally placed in the freezer overnight at minus 20 degrees Celsius. The vaccines have been frozen solid. What is the correct course of action?

The vaccines must be discarded because Hepatitis B vaccine is inactivated and loses potency when frozen; freezing damages the aluminum adjuvant structure

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Allow the vaccines to thaw slowly in the refrigerator and use them normally since freezing preserves vaccine potency

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The vaccines can be used if shaken vigorously after thawing to resuspend the antigen uniformly

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Contact the manufacturer to request replacement, but the frozen vaccines can still be administered in an emergency

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Question 506 of 1136

506. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing an insulin drip (regular insulin 100 units in 100 mL normal saline) for an ICU patient. The pharmacist instructs the technician to prime the IV tubing with the insulin solution before connecting it to the patient. What stability concern does this priming step address?

Insulin adsorbs to IV tubing and container surfaces; priming saturates the binding sites so the patient receives a more consistent and predictable dose

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Priming removes air bubbles that would chemically degrade insulin through oxidation in the tubing

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Insulin precipitates in normal saline if the tubing is not flushed first with the insulin solution

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Priming prevents microbial contamination by coating the interior of the tubing with insulin's bacteriostatic preservative

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Question 507 of 1136

507. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the beyond-use dates for three compounded sterile preparations. CSP X is a Category 1 preparation stored at controlled room temperature. CSP Y is a Category 1 preparation stored in the refrigerator. CSP Z is a Category 2 preparation stored in the refrigerator with sterility testing performed. Which set of maximum default beyond-use dates is correct under USP 797?

CSP X: 12 hours; CSP Y: 24 hours; CSP Z: up to 4 days if supported by sterility testing and stability data

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CSP X: 24 hours; CSP Y: 48 hours; CSP Z: up to 14 days

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CSP X: 6 hours; CSP Y: 12 hours; CSP Z: up to 24 hours

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CSP X: 48 hours; CSP Y: 7 days; CSP Z: up to 30 days

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Question 508 of 1136

508. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A long-term care facility patient’s medication administration record shows prescriptions for both omeprazole 20 mg daily and pantoprazole 40 mg daily from two different prescribers. What should the pharmacy technician do upon identifying this during order entry?

Alert the pharmacist to the therapeutic duplication of two proton pump inhibitors prescribed concurrently

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Process both prescriptions since the two medications have different brand names and potencies

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Discontinue the omeprazole and fill only the pantoprazole because it is the higher dose

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Contact the nursing facility directly to cancel the older prescription

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Question 509 of 1136

509. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A mail-order pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing active prescriptions for duloxetine 60 mg daily and venlafaxine XR 150 mg daily. Both are prescribed by different providers. Which concern should the technician bring to the pharmacist’s attention?

Both medications are SNRIs, creating a therapeutic duplication that increases the risk of serotonin-related adverse effects

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Both medications are SSRIs and will compete for the same reuptake transporter with no additional benefit

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Both medications are tricyclic antidepressants and will cause excessive sedation when combined

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Both medications are MAO inhibitors and will cause dangerous food interactions when taken together

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Question 510 of 1136

510. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A community pharmacy technician processes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg daily and notices the patient already has an active prescription for losartan 50 mg daily. Why is this combination a concern?

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and losartan is an ARB; using both together is a therapeutic duplication that increases hyperkalemia and renal impairment risk

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Both are calcium channel blockers that will cause severe hypotension and reflex tachycardia if combined

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Both are beta-blockers and together will produce dangerously slow heart rates in most patients

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Both are diuretics acting on the same nephron segment, causing excessive fluid and electrolyte loss

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Question 511 of 1136

511. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: History Taking

Which component of the patient history focuses on identifying medications the patient is currently prescribed?

SAMPLE history

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OPQRST assessment

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Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

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Glasgow Coma Scale

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Question 512 of 1136

512. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A specialty pharmacy technician notices a patient profile contains active prescriptions for both adalimumab and etanercept. Both were prescribed by the same rheumatologist at different visits. What type of duplication concern should the technician report to the pharmacist?

Both are TNF-alpha inhibitors, and concurrent use creates therapeutic duplication with significantly increased immunosuppression and infection risk

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Both are interleukin-6 inhibitors, and combining them will cause cytokine storm syndrome

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Both are JAK inhibitors that together will suppress bone marrow function and cause pancytopenia

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Both are B-cell depleting agents that will completely eliminate humoral immunity when combined

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Question 513 of 1136

513. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Physical Exam

You are performing a secondary assessment on a patient involved in a motorcycle crash. When palpating the pelvis, the patient grimaces and you feel instability. What is the most appropriate next step?

Stop palpating the pelvis and apply a pelvic binder

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Continue the head-to-toe exam and reassess the pelvis afterward

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Rock the pelvis side to side to confirm the instability finding

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Log roll the patient to visually inspect the pelvis

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Question 514 of 1136

514. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A community pharmacy technician enters a new prescription for fluconazole 200 mg daily for a patient who takes methadone 80 mg daily through an opioid treatment program. Which interaction should the technician flag for the pharmacist?

Fluconazole inhibits CYP3A4 and CYP2C19, which can increase methadone levels and raise the risk of QT prolongation and respiratory depression

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Fluconazole induces CYP2D6, which rapidly metabolizes methadone and may trigger opioid withdrawal symptoms

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Fluconazole competes with methadone for mu-opioid receptor binding, reducing pain control effectiveness

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Fluconazole increases renal tubular secretion of methadone, lowering plasma concentrations to subtherapeutic levels

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Question 515 of 1136

515. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking lithium 600 mg twice daily for bipolar disorder receives a new prescription for ibuprofen 600 mg three times daily for knee pain. The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist because NSAIDs can cause which effect on lithium?

NSAIDs reduce renal prostaglandin synthesis, decreasing lithium clearance and causing potentially toxic lithium levels

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NSAIDs increase hepatic metabolism of lithium through CYP2D6 induction, reducing lithium to subtherapeutic levels

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NSAIDs bind lithium in the gastrointestinal tract, forming an insoluble complex that prevents absorption

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NSAIDs compete with lithium for protein binding sites, displacing lithium and causing a brief spike followed by rapid elimination

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Question 516 of 1136

516. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A hospital pharmacy technician processes orders for a patient receiving IV vancomycin and oral metformin. The patient’s latest serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL, up from 0.9 mg/dL at admission. Considering the drug interaction potential, why is this lab change particularly concerning for the metformin order?

Vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity is worsening renal function, and impaired kidneys cannot adequately clear metformin, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis

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Vancomycin displaces metformin from albumin binding sites, causing a surge of free metformin in the bloodstream

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Vancomycin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis independently, and combined with metformin will cause irreversible hypoglycemia

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Rising creatinine indicates vancomycin is being converted to a toxic metabolite that reacts chemically with metformin

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Question 517 of 1136

517. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient brings in a new prescription for clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for a sinus infection. Their profile shows they take colchicine 0.6 mg daily for gout prophylaxis. What interaction should the technician flag?

Clarithromycin strongly inhibits CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein, which can increase colchicine to toxic levels causing multi-organ failure

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Clarithromycin reduces gastric acid production, preventing colchicine absorption and causing acute gout flares

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Colchicine induces CYP3A4, accelerating clarithromycin metabolism and reducing its antibiotic effectiveness

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Both drugs compete for the same renal transporter, causing acute crystalluria and kidney stone formation

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Question 518 of 1136

518. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician reviews a discharge medication list for a patient leaving the hospital. The list includes clopidogrel 75 mg daily and omeprazole 20 mg daily. The pharmacist had previously noted the patient is a CYP2C19 poor metabolizer. Why does the technician’s concern about this combination go beyond the standard interaction warning?

Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, and since the patient already has reduced CYP2C19 activity genetically, the additional inhibition will further impair conversion of clopidogrel to its active metabolite

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Omeprazole raises gastric pH, which prevents clopidogrel tablet dissolution, and poor metabolizers already absorb less drug orally

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CYP2C19 poor metabolizers produce excess active clopidogrel metabolite, and adding omeprazole will cause dangerous bleeding

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Omeprazole and clopidogrel compete for plasma protein binding, and poor metabolizers have lower albumin levels that worsen this competition

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Question 519 of 1136

519. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking spironolactone 25 mg daily for heart failure receives a new prescription for potassium chloride 20 mEq daily. The pharmacy technician should flag this combination because of which risk?

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and adding potassium supplementation can cause life-threatening hyperkalemia

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Potassium chloride neutralizes the aldosterone-blocking effect of spironolactone, making it ineffective for heart failure

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Spironolactone converts potassium chloride into an insoluble salt in the renal tubules, causing kidney stones

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Both drugs increase urinary sodium excretion to dangerous levels, resulting in severe hyponatremia

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Question 520 of 1136

520. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician at a specialty pharmacy reviews a new prescription for simeprevir for hepatitis C. The patient’s profile lists carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily for seizure disorder. The technician recalls that carbamazepine is a strong CYP3A4 inducer. What is the expected outcome if both medications are taken together?

Carbamazepine will significantly reduce simeprevir plasma concentrations through CYP3A4 induction, likely causing hepatitis C treatment failure

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Simeprevir will inhibit carbamazepine metabolism, causing carbamazepine toxicity with ataxia and diplopia

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Both drugs will compete for CYP3A4, resulting in equally elevated levels of both medications

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Carbamazepine will convert simeprevir into a hepatotoxic metabolite that worsens liver damage

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Question 521 of 1136

521. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on stable warfarin therapy with an INR of 2.3 is prescribed a 7-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection. Three days into the antibiotic course, the patient calls the pharmacy reporting nosebleeds and bruising. What is the most likely pharmacological explanation?

TMP-SMX inhibits CYP2C9, the primary enzyme metabolizing the more potent S-warfarin enantiomer, causing elevated warfarin levels and excessive anticoagulation

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TMP-SMX destroys gut flora that produce vitamin K, but this effect typically takes 4 to 6 weeks to manifest clinically

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TMP-SMX directly activates plasminogen, causing fibrinolysis independent of the warfarin anticoagulant pathway

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TMP-SMX displaces warfarin from tissue binding sites in the liver, causing rapid redistribution to the vascular compartment

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Question 522 of 1136

522. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A community pharmacy technician processes a prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for a patient whose profile shows calcium carbonate 1250 mg twice daily. The technician should alert the pharmacist about which interaction?

Calcium-containing antacids chelate ciprofloxacin in the GI tract, significantly reducing fluoroquinolone absorption and antibiotic effectiveness

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Ciprofloxacin accelerates calcium absorption, increasing the risk of hypercalcemia and kidney stone formation

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Calcium carbonate raises gastric pH to a level that converts ciprofloxacin into a nephrotoxic metabolite

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Ciprofloxacin and calcium compete for the same renal transporter, causing both to accumulate to toxic levels

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Question 523 of 1136

523. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking linezolid 600 mg twice daily for a resistant skin infection asks the pharmacy technician if it is safe to take their usual pseudoephedrine 30 mg for nasal congestion. Why should the technician refer this question to the pharmacist immediately?

Linezolid has monoamine oxidase inhibitory activity, and combining it with the sympathomimetic pseudoephedrine can cause a hypertensive crisis

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Linezolid increases pseudoephedrine renal clearance, making the decongestant completely ineffective

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Pseudoephedrine induces CYP3A4, which will reduce linezolid plasma levels below the antibiotic threshold

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Both drugs prolong the QT interval equally, and together they will cause torsades de pointes

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Question 524 of 1136

524. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber writes for metoprolol succinate ER 100 mg daily for a patient with heart failure. The pharmacy only has metoprolol tartrate 50 mg tablets in stock. What should the pharmacy technician understand about substituting between these two formulations?

Metoprolol succinate ER and metoprolol tartrate are not interchangeable because they have different salt forms, release mechanisms, dosing frequencies, and approved indications

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The two formulations are therapeutically equivalent and can be substituted by giving two tartrate 50 mg tablets once daily

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Metoprolol tartrate can replace the succinate ER if the total daily dose is split into three equal doses taken every 8 hours

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Both formulations contain the same salt form and only differ in tablet coating, making direct substitution acceptable

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Question 525 of 1136

525. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg/hour for chronic pain management. The patient asks if they can cut the patch in half to start with a lower dose. What should the technician communicate?

Refer the patient to the pharmacist because cutting a fentanyl patch can damage the rate-controlling membrane and cause a potentially fatal rapid release of the full drug content

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Advise the patient that cutting the patch is an acceptable practice as long as the cut edges are sealed with medical tape

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Tell the patient to cut the patch and apply both halves to different body sites for even distribution

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Suggest the patient fold the patch in half instead of cutting it to reduce the exposed surface area by 50%

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Question 526 of 1136

526. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for tacrolimus 1 mg capsules, quantity 60, for a kidney transplant patient. The shelf has both the brand Prograf and an AB-rated generic tacrolimus. The patient has been stable on Prograf for two years. What consideration is most critical when deciding whether to dispense the generic?

Tacrolimus has a narrow therapeutic index, and switching between manufacturers may alter blood levels enough to risk organ rejection or toxicity, requiring pharmacist judgment and possible prescriber notification

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AB-rated generics are always bioequivalent, so the switch can be made freely without any clinical concern for transplant patients

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Generic tacrolimus is only approved for new transplant patients, not for those already stabilized on brand-name therapy

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Switching from brand to generic tacrolimus requires a mandatory 2-week washout period before beginning the generic formulation

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Question 527 of 1136

527. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual tablets, quantity 25, with directions to take 1 tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes as needed for chest pain up to 3 doses. A pharmacy technician notices the tablets were dispensed from a newly opened bottle 9 months ago. What should the technician check?

Verify whether the original container's expiration date has passed, since sublingual nitroglycerin tablets lose potency after the bottle is opened and typically expire within the manufacturer's stated timeframe

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Check whether the tablets have changed color, because nitroglycerin tablets that are still potent will always appear bright red

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Confirm that the tablets were stored in a plastic medication vial, which is the required container to preserve nitroglycerin stability

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Verify that the tablets have been refrigerated, as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets must be kept at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

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Question 528 of 1136

528. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician in a hospital setting is asked to prepare a phenytoin dose for a patient receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. The order calls for phenytoin suspension 300 mg via NG tube. The technician knows the patient’s tube feeding was held for the required time. What additional consideration regarding the dosage form is most important?

Phenytoin suspension binds to the proteins in enteral feeding formulas, so the tube must be flushed thoroughly before and after administration, and drug levels should be monitored closely

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Phenytoin suspension is acidic and will dissolve the nasogastric tube material, requiring use of a specialized acid-resistant tube

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Phenytoin suspension must be diluted 1:1 with normal saline before NG administration to prevent esophageal burns

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Phenytoin capsules should always be used instead of suspension for NG tube administration because capsule contents are more bioavailable

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Question 529 of 1136

529. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient presents a prescription for budesonide 3 mg delayed-release capsules with directions to open the capsule, sprinkle the contents on applesauce, and swallow without chewing. The pharmacy technician recognizes this administration method is specified for which reason?

The enteric-coated granules inside the capsule protect budesonide from stomach acid degradation, and the capsule shell may be opened as long as the granules themselves are swallowed intact

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Budesonide capsules contain a liquid gel that must be mixed with food to mask the bitter taste before swallowing

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Opening the capsule converts the delayed-release formulation to immediate-release, which is necessary for treating oral ulcers

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The capsule contents must be exposed to air for activation before swallowing to ensure the drug becomes pharmacologically active

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Question 530 of 1136

530. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A technician in a long-term care pharmacy receives an order for a patient who requires insulin glargine (Lantus) 30 units subcutaneously at bedtime. The pharmacy has both Lantus U-100 (100 units/mL) pens and Toujeo U-300 (300 units/mL) pens in stock. The technician selects the Toujeo pen. Why is this a potentially dangerous error?

Toujeo is three times more concentrated than Lantus, and while both contain insulin glargine, they are not interchangeable unit-for-unit due to different pharmacokinetic profiles and concentration

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Toujeo contains a different insulin analog than Lantus and cannot be used as a basal insulin at all

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Toujeo pens are designed for intramuscular injection only and cannot be administered subcutaneously

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Toujeo is a rapid-acting insulin formulation while Lantus is long-acting, so they serve different clinical purposes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 531 of 1136

531. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A community pharmacy receives a prescription for amphotericin B lipid complex (Abelcet) 5 mg/kg IV for a hospitalized patient being discharged to home infusion therapy. The technician pulls conventional amphotericin B deoxycholate from the shelf. Why is this substitution dangerous?

Conventional amphotericin B deoxycholate is significantly more nephrotoxic than lipid formulations, and the dosing is different; substituting could cause severe kidney damage

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Lipid complex amphotericin B is for oral use only while conventional amphotericin B is for IV use, making the route incorrect

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Conventional amphotericin B has a higher pH than the lipid formulation, causing immediate vein irritation but no systemic toxicity difference

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The lipid formulation is the only form active against fungi; conventional amphotericin B has lost antifungal activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 532 of 1136

532. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician in a community pharmacy receives a prescription for nifedipine ER 60 mg daily. The patient mentions they have been biting and swallowing their previous nifedipine 10 mg capsules when they feel their blood pressure is high. What danger does this practice present that the technician should immediately relay to the pharmacist?

Biting nifedipine immediate-release capsules causes rapid sublingual absorption that can produce precipitous blood pressure drops, reflex tachycardia, and stroke

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Biting the capsule exposes nifedipine to saliva enzymes that convert it into a cardiotoxic compound

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The capsule gel coating becomes sharp when bitten and can cause esophageal perforations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nifedipine is inactivated by oral pH, so biting the capsule renders the medication completely ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 533 of 1136

533. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for methylphenidate ER (Concerta) 36 mg daily for an adolescent patient. The patient’s mother calls asking if the pharmacist can split the 36 mg tablet in half because her son finds the tablet hard to swallow. What should the technician understand about this request?

Concerta uses an OROS osmotic delivery system that cannot be split, crushed, or chewed because doing so destroys the controlled-release mechanism and causes immediate release of the full dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Concerta tablets have a score line specifically designed for splitting and can be safely divided for easier swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Splitting the tablet is acceptable as long as both halves are taken within one hour of each other

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The tablet can be dissolved in water and given as a solution since methylphenidate is stable in aqueous form

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Question 534 of 1136

534. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A hospital pharmacy technician is asked to prepare a vancomycin IV piggyback for a patient. The order specifies vancomycin 1.5 g in 250 mL normal saline to be infused over 90 minutes. The technician notices the standard protocol requires infusion over at least 1 hour per 500 mg. Why does the infusion rate matter specifically for vancomycin?

Infusing vancomycin too rapidly can cause Red Man Syndrome, characterized by flushing, erythema, and hypotension due to non-immune-mediated histamine release

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Rapid vancomycin infusion causes crystallization in the IV tubing, leading to pulmonary embolism from particulate matter

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Vancomycin must infuse slowly because it is a vesicant that causes tissue necrosis if the infusion pressure is too high

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Fast infusion rates activate vancomycin's nephrotoxic metabolite, which is only produced when the drug enters the bloodstream rapidly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 535 of 1136

535. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient picking up a new prescription for amiodarone 200 mg daily mentions plans for a beach vacation next week. What side effect risk should the pharmacy technician ensure the pharmacist addresses during counseling?

Amiodarone causes severe photosensitivity reactions, and patients must use broad-spectrum sunscreen and protective clothing to prevent painful skin burns and blue-gray discoloration

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Amiodarone causes heat intolerance by blocking sweat gland function, making beach activity dangerous due to heat stroke risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone reacts with salt water to form a dermatitis-causing compound that blisters on contact with skin

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Amiodarone increases melanin production so rapidly that a single day of sun exposure will cause permanent dark patches

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 536 of 1136

536. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient started on methotrexate 15 mg weekly for rheumatoid arthritis asks the pharmacy technician why the pharmacist also prescribed folic acid 1 mg daily. What is the purpose of folic acid supplementation with methotrexate?

Folic acid reduces the incidence of methotrexate side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and bone marrow suppression without diminishing its anti-inflammatory efficacy

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Folic acid enhances methotrexate absorption in the small intestine, allowing a lower dose to be effective

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Folic acid is needed because methotrexate depletes iron stores, and folic acid helps regenerate iron-carrying proteins

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Folic acid prevents methotrexate from crossing the blood-brain barrier, eliminating the risk of CNS toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 537 of 1136

537. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A hospital pharmacy technician reviews a medication order for clozapine 100 mg twice daily for a patient with treatment-resistant schizophrenia. The most recent complete blood count shows an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900 cells/mcL. Based on clozapine monitoring requirements, what should the technician expect?

The clozapine should be held and the pharmacist notified because an ANC below 1000 cells/mcL indicates severe neutropenia requiring treatment interruption per REMS requirements

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The clozapine can continue at the current dose because monitoring is only required during the first 6 months of therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The ANC level requires a dose increase to stimulate white blood cell production through clozapine's immunostimulatory properties

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The clozapine dose should be halved rather than held, since dose reduction alone is sufficient for moderate neutropenia

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Question 538 of 1136

538. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient recently started on an ACE inhibitor calls the pharmacy reporting a persistent dry cough that began two weeks after starting the medication. The pharmacy technician should recognize this as which type of adverse effect?

A well-known class effect of ACE inhibitors caused by accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, occurring in approximately 5% to 20% of patients

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An allergic reaction to the inactive ingredients in the tablet requiring immediate discontinuation and epinephrine administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A sign of ACE inhibitor overdose that indicates the dose exceeds the maximum recommended daily amount

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A temporary side effect that resolves within 48 hours if the patient takes the medication with a full glass of water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 539 of 1136

539. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A long-term care facility nurse calls the pharmacy to report that a patient on chronic haloperidol 5 mg twice daily has developed involuntary lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and repetitive jaw movements. The pharmacy technician recognizes these symptoms as which serious adverse effect?

Tardive dyskinesia, an often irreversible movement disorder caused by long-term dopamine receptor blockade with first-generation antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute dystonia, which is an emergency requiring immediate IM diphenhydramine and will resolve completely within 30 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which requires immediate cooling measures and IV dantrolene to prevent organ failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from excessive serotonergic activity caused by haloperidol's serotonin reuptake inhibition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 540 of 1136

540. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Scene Safety

You are dispatched to a domestic disturbance where a patient reportedly has a stab wound. Upon arrival, you hear yelling from inside the residence and see broken glass on the front porch. What should you do?

Stage at a safe distance and wait for law enforcement to secure the scene

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Enter the residence quickly to reach the bleeding patient

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Approach the front door and announce yourself loudly

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Call medical control for permission to enter

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Question 541 of 1136

541. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient’s medication profile includes both lisinopril 20 mg daily and aliskiren 150 mg daily. Laboratory results from the patient’s chart show a serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L. Which adverse effect pattern is most consistent with this combination?

Dual RAAS blockade with an ACE inhibitor and direct renin inhibitor causes additive potassium retention, resulting in dangerous hyperkalemia

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Both drugs cause metabolic alkalosis that artificially elevates measured potassium levels without truly increasing total body potassium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aliskiren induces aldosterone production that paradoxically raises potassium through a feedback mechanism unique to direct renin inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The high potassium is caused by lisinopril-induced hemolysis, releasing intracellular potassium from destroyed red blood cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 542 of 1136

542. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on long-term prednisone 20 mg daily for lupus mentions to the pharmacy technician that they have been gaining weight in their face and abdomen, developing acne, and having difficulty sleeping. These symptoms are consistent with which adverse effect pattern?

Cushing syndrome features caused by chronic exogenous corticosteroid use, including moon face, central obesity, skin changes, and insomnia

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Hypothyroidism induced by prednisone suppression of thyroid-stimulating hormone, causing weight gain and fatigue

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Anabolic steroid effects from prednisone's androgenic properties, causing acne and body composition changes

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Metabolic syndrome from prednisone-induced insulin resistance only, unrelated to cortisol pathway effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 543 of 1136

543. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 68-year-old patient taking ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for a complicated UTI reports sudden, severe pain and swelling in their Achilles tendon after walking up stairs. The patient also takes prednisone 10 mg daily. Why does this combination place the patient at particularly high risk for this adverse event?

Fluoroquinolones carry a risk of tendon rupture that is significantly amplified by concurrent corticosteroid use and age over 60

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin depletes calcium from tendons while prednisone blocks calcium reabsorption, together causing bone fractures near tendon insertions

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Prednisone masks the pain signals from ciprofloxacin-induced muscle damage until the muscle is severely compromised

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs independently cause gout by raising uric acid, and the tendon pain is actually an acute gout flare in the ankle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 544 of 1136

544. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is processing a new prescription for isotretinoin 40 mg daily for severe cystic acne. Before dispensing, the technician checks the iPLEDGE system. Why does isotretinoin require this special restricted program?

Isotretinoin is a known teratogen that causes severe birth defects, and iPLEDGE requires pregnancy testing, contraception counseling, and monthly authorization before each dispense

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Isotretinoin causes liver cancer with long-term use, and iPLEDGE monitors cumulative lifetime exposure to limit total doses dispensed

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Isotretinoin is a controlled substance with high abuse potential, and iPLEDGE functions as an electronic prescription monitoring program

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Isotretinoin causes irreversible hearing loss, and iPLEDGE requires audiometry testing before each monthly prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 545 of 1136

545. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking carbamazepine 600 mg daily presents to the community pharmacy with a widespread skin rash, fever, and facial swelling that started 3 weeks after beginning therapy. The pharmacy technician notices the patient’s ethnicity is documented as Southeast Asian. Why is this clinical context particularly significant?

Patients of Southeast Asian descent have a higher prevalence of the HLA-B*1502 allele, which significantly increases the risk of carbamazepine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Southeast Asian patients metabolize carbamazepine through a unique CYP pathway that produces a more allergenic metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The rash indicates a standard drug allergy that is equally common in all populations and resolves by switching to a different carbamazepine brand

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Southeast Asian patients have naturally lower albumin levels, causing more free carbamazepine to circulate and produce dose-dependent skin toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 546 of 1136

546. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on metformin 1000 mg twice daily for type 2 diabetes reports persistent tingling and numbness in their hands and feet over the past several months. The pharmacy technician should recognize that long-term metformin use can contribute to this symptom through which mechanism?

Metformin can cause vitamin B12 deficiency over time by impairing its absorption in the ileum, leading to peripheral neuropathy

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Metformin directly damages peripheral nerve myelin sheaths through its biguanide chemical structure

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Metformin lowers blood glucose excessively, and chronic hypoglycemia causes permanent nerve damage in the extremities

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin accumulates in peripheral nerve tissue and acts as a neurotoxin after reaching a cumulative dose threshold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 547 of 1136

547. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A community pharmacy technician processes a prescription for ondansetron 4 mg ODT with directions to take one tablet 30 minutes before chemotherapy and then every 8 hours for 2 days. The technician should recognize ondansetron’s primary therapeutic classification as which type of medication?

A 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery

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A dopamine agonist used to stimulate appetite and reduce cachexia in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy

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A neurokinin-1 receptor blocker that prevents cancer-related pain by blocking substance P in the spinal cord

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A prokinetic agent that increases gastric emptying speed to prevent food-related nausea during chemotherapy cycles

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Question 548 of 1136

548. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for dapagliflozin 10 mg daily for a patient whose profile shows a diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction but no diabetes diagnosis. The technician questions whether this is an error. Is the prescription appropriate?

Yes, dapagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor that has an FDA-approved indication for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction regardless of diabetes status

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No, SGLT2 inhibitors are only approved for type 2 diabetes and should not be dispensed without a diabetes diagnosis

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Yes, but only because dapagliflozin is being used off-label as a diuretic, which is an accepted but unapproved use

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No, dapagliflozin is contraindicated in heart failure patients because it can worsen cardiac output through fluid depletion

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Question 549 of 1136

549. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician reviews a medication profile for a 35-year-old female patient and sees prescriptions for topiramate 100 mg twice daily and phentermine 15 mg daily, both prescribed by the same physician. Considering the approved indications, what is the most likely therapeutic purpose of this combination?

Weight management, as the combination of phentermine and topiramate is FDA-approved for chronic weight management in adults with obesity or overweight with comorbidities

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Migraine prevention, since both drugs are individually approved for migraine prophylaxis and work synergistically

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Seizure disorder treatment, because phentermine enhances the anticonvulsant effects of topiramate in drug-resistant epilepsy

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ADHD treatment, as phentermine is a stimulant and topiramate reduces impulsivity when combined for attention deficit management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 550 of 1136

550. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient asks the pharmacy technician what finasteride 5 mg daily is used for, since their physician prescribed it for a prostate condition. The technician should understand that at the 5 mg dose, finasteride is indicated for which condition?

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), where finasteride reduces prostate size by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

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Prostate cancer treatment, where finasteride kills malignant prostate cells through direct cytotoxic activity

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Erectile dysfunction, where finasteride improves blood flow to the prostate and surrounding erectile tissue

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Urinary tract infection prevention, where finasteride has direct antibacterial properties against common urinary pathogens

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Question 551 of 1136

551. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A hospital pharmacy technician processes an order for naloxone 0.4 mg IV STAT for a patient in the emergency department. The technician should recognize that naloxone’s mechanism and indication involve which action?

Competitive antagonism at mu-opioid receptors to rapidly reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and sedation

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Stimulation of the respiratory center in the brainstem independent of any opioid receptor activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chelation and inactivation of opioid molecules in the bloodstream before they reach the brain

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Enhancement of hepatic metabolism of opioids through CYP3A4 induction for faster drug clearance

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Question 552 of 1136

552. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient’s profile contains prescriptions for both trazodone 50 mg at bedtime and trazodone 150 mg twice daily from two different providers. One is a psychiatrist and the other is a primary care physician. What is the most likely clinical explanation for the two different trazodone prescriptions?

Trazodone at low doses (25 to 100 mg) is commonly used off-label for insomnia, while higher doses (150 to 600 mg daily) are used for its FDA-approved indication of major depressive disorder, suggesting a coordination error between providers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The lower dose treats anxiety while the higher dose treats depression, and both prescribers intentionally wrote for different conditions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trazodone 50 mg is an immediate-release sedative while trazodone 150 mg is a sustained-release antidepressant, so they are different medications

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The psychiatrist prescribed the low dose as a taper while the PCP prescribed the higher dose as the new target, indicating a planned dose increase

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Question 553 of 1136

553. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician in a community pharmacy receives a returned insulin pen (Humalog KwikPen) from a patient who says they left it in their car during a summer afternoon where temperatures reached 95 degrees Fahrenheit. The pen was dispensed 5 days ago and has been used twice. Can this insulin still be dispensed or used?

No, the insulin should be discarded because exposure to temperatures above 86 degrees Fahrenheit (30 degrees Celsius) can degrade insulin and compromise its potency

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Yes, as long as the pen is refrigerated for 24 hours to restore potency before the next injection

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Yes, rapid-acting insulin is heat-stable and only degrades if frozen, so temperature above 86 degrees is acceptable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, but only because the pen has been opened and used, not because of the heat exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 554 of 1136

554. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy technician is preparing a batch of IV admixtures. One of the orders calls for ceftriaxone 2 g in 100 mL D5W. After reconstitution and mixing, the technician needs to determine the beyond-use date. What factor is most critical for assigning this date?

The storage temperature (room temperature versus refrigerated) and the manufacturer's stability data for the specific diluent, as these determine how long the reconstituted product remains potent and sterile

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The color of the solution after mixing, since ceftriaxone admixtures are only stable as long as they remain perfectly clear and colorless

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The time of day the admixture was prepared, because beyond-use dates are always calculated from midnight of the preparation date

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The lot number of the ceftriaxone powder, since each manufacturing lot has a different chemical stability profile after reconstitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 555 of 1136

555. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician in a community pharmacy notices that a bottle of reconstituted amoxicillin suspension on the shelf was reconstituted 18 days ago. The label states a 14-day beyond-use date after reconstitution when refrigerated. What action should the technician take?

Remove the bottle from stock and discard it, because the suspension has exceeded its 14-day beyond-use date and may have lost potency or developed microbial contamination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue dispensing from the bottle because the 14-day date is only a suggestion and the suspension remains stable for 30 days if refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shake the bottle vigorously and visually inspect it; if it appears normal, it can be used for an additional 7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Freeze the remaining suspension to extend the beyond-use date by an additional 14 days from the freeze date

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Question 556 of 1136

556. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician preparing sodium nitroprusside for IV infusion wraps the bag and tubing in aluminum foil. A pharmacy student asks why this step is necessary. What is the correct explanation for this light-protection requirement?

Sodium nitroprusside rapidly decomposes when exposed to light, releasing cyanide ions that can reach toxic levels if the solution is not protected from light during preparation and administration

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Light exposure causes the IV bag material to leach plasticizers into the solution, which interact with nitroprusside to form precipitates

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Fluorescent light activates a photochemical reaction that converts nitroprusside into an inactive compound, making the infusion therapeutically useless but not dangerous

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Light protection prevents evaporation of the volatile nitroprusside solution through the semi-permeable IV bag membrane

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 557 of 1136

557. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking levothyroxine 100 mcg every morning presents a new prescription for ferrous sulfate 325 mg twice daily for iron deficiency anemia. The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist because of which interaction concern?

Iron salts bind levothyroxine in the GI tract, forming an insoluble complex that significantly reduces thyroid hormone absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron accelerates hepatic metabolism of levothyroxine through CYP1A2 induction, lowering thyroid hormone blood levels

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Levothyroxine prevents iron absorption by raising gastric pH, worsening the patient's iron deficiency anemia

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Iron and levothyroxine together cause oxidative damage to the intestinal mucosa, resulting in malabsorption of all nutrients

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Question 558 of 1136

558. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for diltiazem ER 240 mg daily. The pharmacy has both Cardizem CD 240 mg and Cardizem LA 240 mg capsules available. The technician selects Cardizem LA. Is this an acceptable substitution?

No, Cardizem CD and Cardizem LA are not interchangeable because they use different extended-release delivery systems with different pharmacokinetic profiles and are not AB-rated to each other

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Yes, both contain the same active ingredient at the same strength and are considered therapeutically equivalent by the FDA

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Yes, all extended-release diltiazem products are interchangeable as long as the total daily dose remains the same

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No, but only because Cardizem LA is a tablet and Cardizem CD is a capsule, and formulation shape determines equivalence

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 559 of 1136

559. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A hospital pharmacy technician reviewing a newly admitted patient’s medication reconciliation finds both lisinopril 20 mg daily and enalapril 10 mg daily ordered. What should the technician do?

Flag the therapeutic duplication of two ACE inhibitors for pharmacist review

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process both orders since the doses are different

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Discontinue the lisinopril automatically since enalapril was ordered

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Contact the patient to verify which medication they prefer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 560 of 1136

560. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A community pharmacy technician notices a patient picking up escitalopram 10 mg and sertraline 50 mg from two different prescribers. The patient states both doctors are aware. Which concern is most clinically significant?

Concurrent use of two SSRIs increases the risk of serotonin syndrome

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The patient may experience reduced efficacy from both medications counteracting each other

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Taking two antidepressants always requires prior authorization from insurance

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The patient will need monthly liver function tests while on both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 561 of 1136

561. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A technician processing a new prescription for omeprazole 40 mg daily notices the patient profile already contains pantoprazole 40 mg daily from the same gastroenterologist. What is the most appropriate action?

Alert the pharmacist to verify whether the prescriber intended to switch proton pump inhibitors

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Fill both prescriptions since they are from the same prescriber

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the pantoprazole and fill the omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the omeprazole on hold until the pantoprazole supply runs out

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 562 of 1136

562. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A long-term care pharmacy technician auditing medication records finds a resident receiving both amlodipine 5 mg and nifedipine ER 30 mg. Blood pressure readings are consistently low at 88/52 mmHg. What most likely explains the low blood pressure?

The additive hypotensive effects of two dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers are causing excessive reduction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The resident is likely dehydrated from insufficient fluid intake

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The nifedipine extended-release formulation is being crushed before administration

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The amlodipine dose is too high for an elderly patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 563 of 1136

563. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

While entering a prescription for ibuprofen 800 mg TID, a technician sees the patient already takes naproxen 500 mg BID. The software generates a therapeutic duplication alert. What drug class do these medications share?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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Opioid analgesics

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Corticosteroids

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Skeletal muscle relaxants

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Question 564 of 1136

564. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A specialty pharmacy technician reviews a transplant patient profile containing both tacrolimus 2 mg BID and cyclosporine 100 mg BID. The transplant coordinator confirms only tacrolimus should continue. Why is this duplication particularly dangerous?

Both calcineurin inhibitors together dramatically increase nephrotoxicity risk beyond either agent alone

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The two medications will cancel each other's immunosuppressive effects

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Insurance will not cover two transplant medications simultaneously

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Both medications must be taken with food, which reduces their absorption

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Question 565 of 1136

565. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician processes a prescription for fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a patient whose profile shows tramadol 50 mg Q6H PRN. The interaction alert fires. What is the primary concern?

Both medications increase serotonin activity, creating a risk of serotonin syndrome

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Fluoxetine will reduce tramadol pain relief by blocking opioid receptors

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Tramadol will cause fluoxetine to be absorbed more slowly in the GI tract

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Fluoxetine will increase tramadol clearance, requiring higher doses for pain control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 566 of 1136

566. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient stabilized on lithium 300 mg TID is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily for hypertension. What is the mechanism by which hydrochlorothiazide affects lithium levels?

Thiazide diuretics reduce sodium reabsorption, causing compensatory lithium reabsorption in the proximal tubule

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Hydrochlorothiazide increases glomerular filtration rate, accelerating lithium clearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thiazide diuretics bind to lithium in the distal tubule, preventing its excretion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrochlorothiazide alkalinizes the urine, converting lithium to an insoluble form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 567 of 1136

567. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A mail-order pharmacy technician reviews a profile with amlodipine 10 mg daily and a new prescription for diltiazem ER 180 mg daily. Beyond therapeutic duplication, what pharmacodynamic concern exists?

Both agents cause vasodilation and negative cardiac effects, increasing risk of severe hypotension and bradycardia

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Diltiazem will convert amlodipine into an inactive metabolite in the bloodstream

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Amlodipine will block the extended-release mechanism of diltiazem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications will compete for protein binding sites, causing unpredictable free drug levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 568 of 1136

568. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician filling ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID checks the profile and sees calcium carbonate 500 mg TID. What administration guidance should be communicated through the pharmacist?

Ciprofloxacin should be taken at least 2 hours before or 6 hours after calcium-containing products to avoid chelation

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Calcium carbonate should be permanently discontinued while taking ciprofloxacin

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Ciprofloxacin and calcium carbonate should always be taken together with food

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The calcium carbonate dose should be halved during antibiotic therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 569 of 1136

569. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A hospital technician sees an order for phenytoin 100 mg TID for a patient receiving enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube. Why does enteral feeding affect phenytoin?

Protein and calcium in enteral formulas bind to phenytoin, reducing its absorption and potentially causing subtherapeutic levels

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Enteral nutrition increases gastric pH, converting phenytoin to an inactive form

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Fat content in tube feeds accelerates phenytoin metabolism in the liver

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Enteral formulas contain preservatives that chemically degrade phenytoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 570 of 1136

570. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician processes prescriptions for methotrexate 15 mg weekly and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS BID for a UTI. What makes this combination dangerous?

Both drugs inhibit folate metabolism through different mechanisms, causing additive bone marrow suppression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trimethoprim increases renal excretion of methotrexate, making it ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sulfamethoxazole displaces methotrexate from tissue binding sites in the joints

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Methotrexate converts trimethoprim into a hepatotoxic metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 571 of 1136

571. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on rivaroxaban 20 mg daily is prescribed ketoconazole 200 mg BID for a fungal infection. If both must be used, what would the pharmacist most likely recommend?

Switching to a topical antifungal or an alternative systemic antifungal that does not strongly inhibit CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein

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Doubling the rivaroxaban dose to overcome the enzyme inhibition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adding vitamin K supplementation to counteract excessive anticoagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Separating administration times by 12 hours to prevent the interaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 572 of 1136

572. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician notices a patient takes both potassium chloride 20 mEq daily and spironolactone 25 mg daily. What electrolyte imbalance is the primary concern?

Life-threatening hyperkalemia due to spironolactone's potassium-sparing effect combined with potassium supplementation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe hyponatremia from excessive sodium excretion by both agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dangerous hypocalcemia from increased urinary calcium loss

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Symptomatic hypomagnesemia from competitive mineral absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 573 of 1136

573. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A technician receives a prescription for prednisone taper: 40 mg daily x 3 days, 30 mg daily x 3 days, 20 mg daily x 3 days, 10 mg daily x 3 days, 5 mg daily x 3 days. Using 10 mg tablets, what total quantity is needed?

32 tablets

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21 tablets

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45 tablets

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30 tablets

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Question 574 of 1136

574. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A nurse calls the pharmacy asking if metoprolol succinate ER 100 mg tablets can be split in half to give a 50 mg dose. What should the technician relay to the pharmacist?

Metoprolol succinate ER tablets should not be split because doing so destroys the extended-release mechanism and may cause dose dumping

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablets can be safely split since they are scored for that purpose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Splitting is acceptable if the half-tablet is placed in a capsule before administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablet can be split only if the patient takes both halves within 4 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 575 of 1136

575. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription reads: Lantus SoloStar 100 units/mL, inject 35 units subcutaneously at bedtime. Each pen contains 3 mL. How many pens are needed for a 30-day supply?

4 pens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

3 pens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 pens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 pens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 576 of 1136

576. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber orders nitroglycerin ointment 2%, apply 1 inch topically every 6 hours. A nurse asks the technician how many milligrams are in each 1-inch application. What is the approximate dose?

15 mg per inch of 2% nitroglycerin ointment as measured on the dosing paper

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 mg per inch based on the 2% concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 mg per inch since the ointment is applied in a 2-inch strip

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7.5 mg per inch which is half the standard 2-inch dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 577 of 1136

577. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A hospital pharmacy receives an order for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The available vial is vancomycin 1 g powder for reconstitution. The label states to reconstitute with 20 mL of sterile water to yield a concentration of 50 mg/mL. What volume should be drawn up for the 1 g dose?

20 mL to deliver the full 1,000 mg dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10 mL since the concentration is high enough for a half-volume dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

25 mL to account for overfill in the vial

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 mL based on the standard IV dilution protocol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 578 of 1136

578. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed albuterol HFA 90 mcg/actuation inhaler, 2 puffs every 4-6 hours PRN. Each canister contains 200 actuations. Assuming maximum use, how many days will one canister last?

Approximately 16-17 days at maximum use of 12 puffs daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 30 days at maximum use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 10 days at maximum use of 20 puffs daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Approximately 25 days at the standard dosing frequency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 579 of 1136

579. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is asked to prepare a compound using hydrocortisone 2.5% cream. The pharmacist requests 60 g of a 1% hydrocortisone cream by diluting with a compatible base cream. How much of the 2.5% cream is needed?

24 grams of 2.5% cream mixed with 36 grams of base cream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 grams of 2.5% cream mixed with 30 grams of base cream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

12 grams of 2.5% cream mixed with 48 grams of base cream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

40 grams of 2.5% cream mixed with 20 grams of base cream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 580 of 1136

580. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription calls for dexamethasone elixir 0.5 mg/5 mL, give 0.75 mg by mouth twice daily. What volume should be administered per dose?

7.5 mL per dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 mL per dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

3.75 mL per dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10 mL per dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 581 of 1136

581. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking amiodarone 200 mg daily for atrial fibrillation presents with new complaints of blurred vision, photosensitivity, and a bluish skin discoloration on sun-exposed areas. Which monitoring parameter is most critical to assess at this point?

Thyroid function tests, as amiodarone contains iodine and can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Complete blood count to rule out amiodarone-induced aplastic anemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fasting blood glucose to check for amiodarone-induced diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Renal function tests since the skin changes suggest nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 582 of 1136

582. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on atorvastatin 80 mg daily calls the pharmacy reporting unexplained muscle pain and dark-colored urine. What should the technician do immediately?

Urgently refer the patient to the pharmacist as these symptoms may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious statin adverse effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reassure the patient that mild muscle aches are common with statins and suggest ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to reduce the dose to 40 mg and follow up at the next appointment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient switch to taking the medication in the morning instead of evening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 583 of 1136

583. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A long-term care resident on haloperidol 5 mg BID for chronic psychosis exhibits involuntary, repetitive lip-smacking and tongue movements. These movements have been present for several months. What adverse effect is this most consistent with?

Tardive dyskinesia, a potentially irreversible movement disorder from prolonged dopamine receptor blockade

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute dystonia that will resolve within hours of dose adjustment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome requiring immediate hospitalization

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Parkinsonian tremor that can be treated with anticholinergic medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 584 of 1136

584. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician notices a warning label requirement for isotretinoin prescriptions. Which serious adverse effect necessitates mandatory pregnancy testing and the iPLEDGE program for this medication?

Severe birth defects (teratogenicity) including craniofacial, cardiac, and CNS malformations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe hepatotoxicity requiring monthly liver biopsies during treatment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients of childbearing age

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Permanent kidney damage requiring dialysis if used during pregnancy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 585 of 1136

585. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient starting methotrexate 15 mg weekly for rheumatoid arthritis asks the pharmacy technician about side effects. Which supplement is commonly co-prescribed to reduce methotrexate adverse effects?

Folic acid 1 mg daily to reduce the risk of bone marrow suppression and GI side effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin D 1000 IU daily to prevent methotrexate-induced osteoporosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron 325 mg daily to counteract methotrexate-induced anemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium 600 mg daily to protect against methotrexate bone toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 586 of 1136

586. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A hospital patient develops a temperature of 104.2F, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability two days after starting olanzapine 10 mg BID. Lab values show elevated creatine kinase and leukocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from excessive serotonergic activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Malignant hyperthermia triggered by the oral medication formulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe infection causing sepsis unrelated to the olanzapine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 587 of 1136

587. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for a complicated UTI calls to report sudden pain and swelling in the Achilles tendon area. What should the technician prioritize?

Immediately alert the pharmacist, as fluoroquinolones carry an FDA black box warning for tendinitis and tendon rupture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to apply ice and continue the antibiotic until the course is complete

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient switch to taking the medication with food to reduce musculoskeletal effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend an over-the-counter pain reliever and schedule a follow-up in one week

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 588 of 1136

588. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A community pharmacy patient taking carvedilol 25 mg BID for heart failure reports worsening shortness of breath and wheezing. The patient has a history of COPD. What pharmacologic property of carvedilol explains these respiratory symptoms?

Carvedilol is a nonselective beta-blocker that blocks beta-2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchospasm in susceptible patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol causes fluid retention in the lungs through its alpha-blocking activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol stimulates mucus production through its calcium channel blocking properties

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol causes pulmonary fibrosis with chronic use in heart failure patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 589 of 1136

589. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician sees a prescription for finasteride 1 mg daily for a 28-year-old male patient. The prescriber is a dermatologist. What is the most likely indication at this dose and from this specialty?

Androgenetic alopecia (male pattern hair loss)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prostate cancer prevention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hirsutism treatment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 590 of 1136

590. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A prescription is received for duloxetine 60 mg daily. The patient profile shows no psychiatric diagnoses but includes a diagnosis of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Is this prescription appropriate?

Yes, duloxetine is FDA-approved for diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain in addition to depression and anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, duloxetine is only approved for major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, duloxetine requires a concurrent antidepressant when used for pain management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only at doses above 90 mg daily for neuropathic pain indications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 591 of 1136

591. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A hospital technician verifies an order for ondansetron 4 mg IV prior to a patient’s chemotherapy session. A separate order shows ondansetron 4 mg ODT PRN for the same patient post-surgery. What property allows ondansetron to serve both clinical scenarios?

Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist effective against both chemotherapy-induced and postoperative nausea and vomiting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron works through different mechanisms depending on the route of administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The IV form treats chemotherapy nausea while the ODT form specifically targets surgical nausea through local GI action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron at 4 mg treats postoperative nausea but requires 8 mg or higher for chemotherapy nausea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 592 of 1136

592. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A technician receives a prescription for spironolactone 50 mg daily from a cardiologist for a female patient with a documented ejection fraction of 30%. The patient asks why a diuretic is being used for her heart. What is the primary indication in this context?

Spironolactone reduces mortality in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction by blocking aldosterone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spironolactone is being used solely to reduce fluid retention from the heart failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spironolactone is prescribed to prevent potassium loss caused by other heart failure medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Spironolactone is being used to treat underlying hypertension contributing to heart failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 593 of 1136

593. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A community pharmacy fills a prescription for gabapentin 300 mg TID from a pain management specialist. The patient has no seizure history. What is the most likely off-label indication?

Neuropathic pain management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Treatment of chronic insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Management of bipolar disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevention of migraine headaches

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 594 of 1136

594. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician reconstitutes a bottle of amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension. The manufacturer label states the reconstituted product is stable for 14 days refrigerated. A patient asks if they can keep it at room temperature. What should the technician relay?

The reconstituted suspension must be refrigerated and discarded after 14 days to maintain stability and potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Room temperature storage is acceptable for the first 7 days after reconstitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The suspension can be frozen to extend its stability beyond 14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Room temperature storage is fine as long as the bottle is kept out of direct sunlight

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 595 of 1136

595. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy technician notices that an insulin vial of Humalog (insulin lispro) has been left on the counter at room temperature for the past 30 days. According to stability guidelines, what action should be taken?

Discard the vial, as opened insulin vials are stable for only 28 days at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the vial to the refrigerator since insulin regains stability when re-cooled

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Use the vial since insulin is stable at room temperature for 42 days once opened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Check the expiration date, as room temperature storage does not affect insulin stability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 596 of 1136

596. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician is preparing nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for dispensing. The original manufacturer bottle is amber glass with a tight-fitting cap. A patient requests the tablets be placed in a weekly pill organizer. What stability concern exists?

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are volatile and lose potency when exposed to air, moisture, and light outside the original container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pill organizers are acceptable as long as they have individual compartment lids

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nitroglycerin tablets are stable in any container for up to 6 months after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablets only lose potency if exposed to temperatures above 100 degrees F

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 597 of 1136

597. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A compounding pharmacy technician prepares a batch of progesterone 200 mg vaginal suppositories using a cocoa butter base. The pharmacist asks for the appropriate beyond-use date. According to USP guidelines for non-preserved aqueous or non-aqueous compounded formulations, what is the maximum BUD without stability testing?

180 days when stored under recommended conditions per USP <795> for non-aqueous formulations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days refrigerated per USP guidelines for all compounded products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days at room temperature for non-sterile compounded dosage forms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

90 days refrigerated since suppositories require cold storage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 598 of 1136

598. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for insulin glargine U-300 (Toujeo) 60 units subcutaneously daily. The patient was previously using insulin glargine U-100 (Lantus) 60 units daily. The pharmacist asks the technician to verify the correct pen for dispensing. Which statement about U-300 insulin is accurate?

U-300 contains 300 units per mL, delivering three times the concentration per mL compared to U-100, so the injection volume is one-third for the same unit dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-300 contains 300 units per 3 mL, which is the same concentration as U-100 but in a larger pen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-300 requires the patient to inject three times the number of units shown on the pen dial

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-300 and U-100 insulin glargine are interchangeable and use the same dosing conversion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 599 of 1136

599. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for ondansetron ODT 4 mg. A patient asks how to take this medication. What instruction should the technician include on the label?

Place the tablet on the tongue and allow it to dissolve, then swallow with or without water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing with a full glass of water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Swallow the tablet whole with at least 8 ounces of water on an empty stomach

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dissolve the tablet in a cup of water and drink the solution immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 600 of 1136

600. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician notices a prescription for MS Contin 30 mg tablets with directions to crush and administer via nasogastric tube. What concern should the technician bring to the pharmacist’s attention?

MS Contin is a sustained-release morphine formulation that must not be crushed because it would release the entire dose at once, risking fatal overdose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MS Contin tablets are too large to pass through a standard nasogastric tube even when crushed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Morphine is chemically unstable when crushed and loses its analgesic potency within minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MS Contin requires an acidic environment to be absorbed, which the nasogastric route cannot provide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 601 of 1136

601. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient picking up a lithium prescription reports experiencing coarse hand tremors, persistent diarrhea, and vomiting over the past two days. The pharmacy technician should recognize these as potential signs of which condition?

Lithium toxicity requiring immediate pharmacist notification and likely referral for medical evaluation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Expected side effects during the first week of therapy that typically resolve without intervention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An allergic reaction to lithium that requires switching to an alternative mood stabilizer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dehydration unrelated to the medication that can be managed with increased fluid intake

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 602 of 1136

602. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A hospital pharmacy technician is preparing vancomycin 1 g in 250 mL normal saline. The nurse calls to report that the patient developed flushing of the face, neck, and upper torso along with hypotension 10 minutes into the infusion. What is the most likely cause of this reaction?

Red man syndrome caused by rapid vancomycin infusion, which can be prevented by infusing over at least 60 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction requiring epinephrine and permanent vancomycin avoidance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A bacterial endotoxin reaction from contaminated normal saline used as the diluent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome triggered by an interaction between vancomycin and the patient's other medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 603 of 1136

603. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient profile and notices the patient takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and has a new order for iodinated contrast dye for an upcoming CT scan. Why might the metformin need to be temporarily held?

Iodinated contrast can impair renal function, and continued metformin use with decreased kidney function increases the risk of lactic acidosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin interacts with iodine to produce toxic metabolites that damage the liver

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The contrast dye reduces metformin absorption, making the medication ineffective for several days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin causes the contrast dye to produce inaccurate imaging results on the CT scan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 604 of 1136

604. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician is processing a new prescription for verapamil 240 mg daily for a patient whose profile shows metoprolol 100 mg twice daily. What significant interaction should the technician flag for pharmacist review?

Combining a calcium channel blocker with a beta-blocker increases the risk of severe bradycardia, heart block, and hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications lower cholesterol through the same pathway, leading to muscle toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Verapamil inhibits the absorption of metoprolol, making the beta-blocker ineffective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol accelerates the hepatic metabolism of verapamil, reducing its antihypertensive effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 605 of 1136

605. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient presents prescriptions for doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and calcium carbonate 500 mg three times daily with meals. What should the pharmacy technician flag regarding this combination?

Calcium-containing antacids bind to tetracycline antibiotics in the GI tract and significantly reduce their absorption and effectiveness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxycycline increases the absorption of calcium, leading to dangerously elevated calcium blood levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium carbonate changes the urine pH, causing doxycycline to be excreted too rapidly by the kidneys

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxycycline degrades into toxic byproducts when exposed to the alkaline environment created by antacids

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 606 of 1136

606. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician processes three prescriptions for methotrexate: one for 2.5 mg weekly, one for 15 mg weekly, and one for 1000 mg/m2 as a single dose. Which statement best explains the dose variation?

Methotrexate is used at low doses (2.5 to 25 mg weekly) for autoimmune conditions such as psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis, and at high doses (hundreds to thousands of mg/m2) for cancer chemotherapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The dose differences reflect different patient weights, as methotrexate dosing is always based on body surface area regardless of indication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower doses indicate a pediatric patient while higher doses are reserved exclusively for adult patients with severe disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Each dose corresponds to a different route of administration, with oral doses always being higher than injectable doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 607 of 1136

607. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Procardia?

Nifedipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diltiazem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Verapamil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 608 of 1136

608. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for ezetimibe?

Zetia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zocor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crestor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TriCor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 609 of 1136

609. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for lorazepam?

Ativan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Xanax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Klonopin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 610 of 1136

610. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for aripiprazole?

Abilify

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Seroquel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zyprexa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risperdal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 611 of 1136

611. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Advair Diskus?

Fluticasone/salmeterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Budesonide/formoterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/vilanterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mometasone/formoterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 612 of 1136

612. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for tiotropium?

Spiriva

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advair

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Symbicort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Flovent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 613 of 1136

613. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Januvia?

Sitagliptin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pioglitazone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glipizide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Empagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 614 of 1136

614. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for empagliflozin?

Jardiance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Farxiga

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Januvia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Invokana

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 615 of 1136

615. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription is received for Calan SR 240 mg once daily. Which generic name should the pharmacy technician enter into the dispensing system?

Verapamil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diltiazem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nifedipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 616 of 1136

616. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient brings in a new prescription for Toprol-XL. Which generic medication should the pharmacy technician select?

Metoprolol succinate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol tartrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atenolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 617 of 1136

617. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient asks the pharmacy technician if there is a generic available for Nexium. What is the generic name the technician should look up?

Esomeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lansoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 618 of 1136

618. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

While filling a prescription for Symbicort, the pharmacy technician should select which generic combination product?

Budesonide/formoterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/salmeterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/vilanterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Albuterol/ipratropium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 619 of 1136

619. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription reads: “Paxil CR 25 mg daily.” Which generic name should the pharmacy technician search in the computer system?

Paroxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sertraline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Citalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 620 of 1136

620. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient presents a prescription for Ozempic. Which generic medication name will appear on the dispensing label?

Semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dulaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liraglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tirzepatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 621 of 1136

621. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient calls asking about the generic name for their Pristiq medication. What should the pharmacy technician tell them?

Desvenlafaxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Venlafaxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duloxetine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Escitalopram

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 622 of 1136

622. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription that reads “Klonopin 1 mg BID.” Which generic medication should be dispensed?

Clonazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clonidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alprazolam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lorazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 623 of 1136

623. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

During inventory, a pharmacy technician finds a bottle labeled “Glucotrol XL.” What is the generic name of this medication?

Glipizide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glimepiride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glyburide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 624 of 1136

624. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber writes for Prilosec 20 mg daily. What generic medication should the pharmacy technician prepare for dispensing?

Omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Esomeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Famotidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 625 of 1136

625. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A technician is filling a prescription for Coreg 12.5 mg twice daily. Which generic drug should appear on the label?

Carvedilol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol tartrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atenolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nebivolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 626 of 1136

626. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient requests a refill for Lyrica. The pharmacy technician should pull which generic medication from the shelf?

Pregabalin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gabapentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lamotrigine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levetiracetam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 627 of 1136

627. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A new prescription is received for Linzess 145 mcg daily. Which generic name should the pharmacy technician verify in the dispensing system?

Linaclotide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lactulose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lubiprostone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene glycol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 628 of 1136

628. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

While verifying a prescription, a pharmacy technician sees “Remeron 15 mg at bedtime.” Which generic name corresponds to this brand?

Mirtazapine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trazodone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amitriptyline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doxepin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 629 of 1136

629. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician receives a new e-prescription for Farxiga 10 mg daily. What is the generic name of this medication?

Dapagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Empagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Canagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sitagliptin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 630 of 1136

630. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription reads “Bentyl 20 mg QID.” The pharmacy technician should dispense which generic medication?

Dicyclomine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyoscyamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoclopramide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Famotidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 631 of 1136

631. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient brings a prescription for Trulicity. The pharmacy technician should prepare which generic medication?

Dulaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liraglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tirzepatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 632 of 1136

632. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s medication profile includes Cozaar, Lipitor, and Protonix. Which list correctly identifies all three generic names?

Losartan, atorvastatin, pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valsartan, atorvastatin, omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Losartan, rosuvastatin, pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valsartan, simvastatin, esomeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 633 of 1136

633. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient’s profile and notices prescriptions for Zoloft, Xanax, and Ambien. Which combination correctly matches all brand names to their generics?

Sertraline, alprazolam, zolpidem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Escitalopram, alprazolam, zaleplon

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sertraline, lorazepam, zolpidem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine, clonazepam, eszopiclone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 634 of 1136

634. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s discharge summary lists Coreg, Lasix, and Aldactone. The pharmacy technician must verify these against the generic names in the system. Which set is correct?

Carvedilol, furosemide, spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol, furosemide, eplerenone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carvedilol, torsemide, spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atenolol, bumetanide, spironolactone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 635 of 1136

635. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber orders Synthroid, Jardiance, and Ozempic for a patient with multiple conditions. Which answer correctly identifies all three generic names?

Levothyroxine, empagliflozin, semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liothyronine, empagliflozin, liraglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levothyroxine, dapagliflozin, semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levothyroxine, empagliflozin, dulaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 636 of 1136

636. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is reviewing medication reconciliation for a patient taking Norvasc, Zestril, and Zocor. Which combination of generic names is correct?

Amlodipine, lisinopril, simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nifedipine, lisinopril, simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine, enalapril, simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine, lisinopril, rosuvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 637 of 1136

637. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s medication list includes Advair, Singulair, and ProAir. The pharmacy technician must identify the correct generic names for all three. Which is correct?

Fluticasone/salmeterol, montelukast, albuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Budesonide/formoterol, montelukast, albuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/salmeterol, zafirlukast, albuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/salmeterol, montelukast, levalbuterol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 638 of 1136

638. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

During a prescription transfer, the pharmacy technician receives information for a patient taking Abilify, Cymbalta, and Klonopin. Which answer lists all generic names correctly?

Aripiprazole, duloxetine, clonazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quetiapine, duloxetine, clonazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aripiprazole, venlafaxine, clonazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aripiprazole, duloxetine, clonidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 639 of 1136

639. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient is being discharged on Breo Ellipta, Spiriva Respimat, and Singulair. The pharmacy technician needs to confirm the correct generics for all three. Which answer is correct?

Fluticasone/vilanterol, tiotropium, montelukast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/salmeterol, tiotropium, montelukast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/vilanterol, umeclidinium, montelukast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone/vilanterol, tiotropium, zafirlukast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 640 of 1136

640. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is conducting a medication reconciliation and sees the patient takes Actos, Amaryl, and Glucophage. Which set of generic names is correct?

Pioglitazone, glimepiride, metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pioglitazone, glipizide, metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rosiglitazone, glimepiride, metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pioglitazone, glimepiride, glyburide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 641 of 1136

641. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which vitamin found in leafy green vegetables can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin?

Vitamin K

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin D

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 642 of 1136

642. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which enzyme system is most commonly responsible for drug-drug interactions involving metabolism?

Cytochrome P450 system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Monoamine oxidase system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glucuronidation pathway

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acetylcholinesterase system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 643 of 1136

643. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which of the following medications is a strong inhibitor of CYP3A4?

Ketoconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atenolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 644 of 1136

644. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which class of antibiotics is most commonly associated with increasing the INR in patients taking warfarin?

Fluoroquinolones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aminoglycosides

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tetracyclines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalosporins

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 645 of 1136

645. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Grapefruit juice inhibits which CYP450 enzyme in the intestinal wall, causing increased drug absorption?

CYP3A4

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2D6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP1A2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CYP2C19

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 646 of 1136

646. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition most commonly caused by combining which types of medications?

Two or more serotonergic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two or more anticholinergic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two or more dopaminergic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two or more adrenergic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 647 of 1136

647. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which herbal supplement is a potent inducer of CYP3A4 and can reduce the effectiveness of many prescription medications?

St. John's wort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ginkgo biloba

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Saw palmetto

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Echinacea

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 648 of 1136

648. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which OTC analgesic, when taken regularly, can increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?

Aspirin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acetaminophen at low doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Guaifenesin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diphenhydramine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 649 of 1136

649. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which of the following drug combinations is most likely to cause QT prolongation?

Azithromycin and ondansetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin and ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin and lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole and calcium carbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 650 of 1136

650. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Combining an ACE inhibitor with a potassium-sparing diuretic increases the risk of which electrolyte abnormality?

Hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypokalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypernatremia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypocalcemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 651 of 1136

651. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking warfarin 5 mg daily presents a new prescription for fluconazole 200 mg daily. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Alert the pharmacist about a potential drug interaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fill both prescriptions without any additional action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refuse to fill the fluconazole prescription entirely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient take the medications 12 hours apart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 652 of 1136

652. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on methotrexate presents a prescription for naproxen 500 mg twice daily. Why should the pharmacy technician flag this combination for the pharmacist?

NSAIDs can decrease renal clearance of methotrexate, increasing toxicity risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NSAIDs increase hepatic metabolism of methotrexate, reducing its efficacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen directly inactivates methotrexate in the bloodstream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NSAIDs cause increased absorption of methotrexate from the GI tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 653 of 1136

653. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking sertraline 100 mg daily brings in a new prescription for tramadol 50 mg every 6 hours as needed. What interaction should the technician alert the pharmacist about?

Risk of serotonin syndrome due to combined serotonergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of severe hypotension from additive vasodilation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of hepatotoxicity from combined liver metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of respiratory depression from additive CNS effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 654 of 1136

654. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking lisinopril 20 mg daily purchases an OTC potassium supplement. What should the pharmacy technician communicate to the pharmacist?

The combination increases the risk of hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination increases the risk of hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potassium supplements reduce the absorption of lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination increases the risk of hypokalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 655 of 1136

655. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient is currently taking simvastatin 40 mg daily. A new prescription for clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily is received. What is the primary concern with this combination?

Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis due to elevated simvastatin levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreased effectiveness of clarithromycin against infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding from both drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreased absorption of simvastatin in the GI tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 656 of 1136

656. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on levothyroxine 100 mcg daily asks about taking calcium carbonate as an antacid. What should the technician inform the pharmacist about?

Calcium carbonate can decrease levothyroxine absorption if taken together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium carbonate increases hepatic clearance of levothyroxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levothyroxine reduces calcium absorption in the small intestine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The two medications compete for the same receptor sites

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 657 of 1136

657. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient profile shows prescriptions for both escitalopram 10 mg daily and sumatriptan 50 mg as needed for migraines. What interaction should the technician flag?

Risk of serotonin syndrome from combined serotonergic activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of severe hypertension from vasoconstriction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of hepatic failure from combined liver toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of seizures from lowered seizure threshold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 658 of 1136

658. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking warfarin calls to say they started taking a daily multivitamin. Why might this affect their warfarin therapy?

Many multivitamins contain vitamin K, which can decrease warfarin's effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Multivitamins contain iron, which increases warfarin absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B vitamins in multivitamins speed up warfarin metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Multivitamins contain vitamin E, which makes warfarin inactive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 659 of 1136

659. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient currently taking amlodipine 10 mg daily receives a new prescription for diltiazem 120 mg daily. What is the primary concern with this combination?

Additive hypotension and bradycardia from two calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of QT prolongation and torsades de pointes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reduced absorption of both medications due to pH changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of hepatotoxicity from combined metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 660 of 1136

660. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD stage 3) is prescribed gentamicin along with their current medication vancomycin. What is the primary interaction concern?

Additive nephrotoxicity from combining two nephrotoxic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reduced antimicrobial effectiveness due to chemical incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased risk of ototoxicity only, with no renal concern

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antagonistic antibacterial effects that reduce treatment success

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 661 of 1136

661. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking phenytoin 300 mg daily receives a prescription for cimetidine 400 mg twice daily. What interaction should concern the pharmacy team?

Cimetidine inhibits CYP enzymes, potentially increasing phenytoin levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cimetidine increases renal excretion of phenytoin, lowering its levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phenytoin reduces the acid-suppressing effect of cimetidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cimetidine causes increased GI absorption of phenytoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 662 of 1136

662. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking metformin 1000 mg twice daily is about to receive IV contrast dye for a CT scan. What drug-disease interaction should be addressed?

Metformin should be held due to risk of lactic acidosis from contrast-induced kidney injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin should be doubled to counteract the glucose-raising effect of contrast dye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contrast dye permanently inactivates metformin in the bloodstream

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin causes allergic cross-reactivity with iodine-based contrast agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 663 of 1136

663. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient brings in prescriptions for both omeprazole 20 mg daily and clopidogrel 75 mg daily. What interaction should the technician flag?

Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, reducing the activation of clopidogrel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clopidogrel reduces the acid-suppressing effectiveness of omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole increases the bleeding risk of clopidogrel by thinning blood

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for protein binding, causing toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 664 of 1136

664. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient is prescribed both lisinopril and losartan. What type of interaction does this represent?

Duplicate therapy acting on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A beneficial synergistic combination for blood pressure control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A pharmacokinetic interaction affecting drug absorption rates

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An antagonistic interaction where one drug blocks the other

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 665 of 1136

665. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient on lithium 600 mg twice daily receives a new prescription for ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily. What is the primary concern?

NSAIDs reduce renal lithium clearance, increasing lithium levels and toxicity risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen inactivates lithium through direct chemical binding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lithium decreases the anti-inflammatory effect of ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NSAIDs increase hepatic metabolism of lithium, reducing its efficacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 666 of 1136

666. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily asks about taking an antacid containing magnesium hydroxide. What should the technician report to the pharmacist?

Magnesium-containing antacids chelate ciprofloxacin, reducing its absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium increases the metabolism of ciprofloxacin in the liver

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin reduces the acid-neutralizing capacity of the antacid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination increases the risk of QT prolongation significantly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 667 of 1136

667. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily is prescribed amiodarone 200 mg daily. What interaction should the technician flag for the pharmacist?

Amiodarone increases digoxin levels by inhibiting P-glycoprotein transport

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Digoxin increases the QT-prolonging effects of amiodarone only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amiodarone decreases digoxin absorption in the GI tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for albumin binding, causing free drug toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 668 of 1136

668. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking warfarin reports purchasing OTC ibuprofen for joint pain. What is the most clinically significant risk of this combination?

Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding from additive anticoagulant and antiplatelet effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen reduces warfarin absorption, causing subtherapeutic INR levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Warfarin reduces the analgesic effectiveness of ibuprofen significantly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen increases hepatic metabolism of warfarin, lowering its blood level

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 669 of 1136

669. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile containing: metoprolol 50 mg twice daily, fluoxetine 20 mg daily, and hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg as needed. Which interaction pair poses the greatest clinical concern?

Fluoxetine and metoprolol, because fluoxetine inhibits CYP2D6 metabolism of metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol and hydrocodone, because both cause excessive CNS depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine and hydrocodone, because both increase dopamine release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol and acetaminophen, because both are hepatotoxic at normal doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 670 of 1136

670. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient profile shows: warfarin 5 mg daily, amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg twice daily (new), and a consistent diet high in green vegetables. The patient’s INR has been stable at 2.5. Which factor is most likely to alter the INR during the antibiotic course?

Amoxicillin/clavulanate reducing gut bacteria that produce vitamin K

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's consistent high vitamin K intake from green vegetables

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin directly inhibiting CYP2C9 metabolism of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clavulanate displacing warfarin from plasma protein binding sites

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 671 of 1136

671. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician is processing prescriptions for a patient taking: venlafaxine 150 mg daily, linezolid 600 mg twice daily (new), and ondansetron 4 mg as needed. Which combination presents the most serious immediate risk?

Venlafaxine and linezolid, due to linezolid's MAO inhibition causing serotonin syndrome risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron and linezolid, due to additive QT prolongation risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Venlafaxine and ondansetron, due to competing serotonin receptor effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Linezolid and ondansetron, due to hepatic enzyme competition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 672 of 1136

672. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient’s medication list includes: carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily, apixaban 5 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. Which drug is most likely to cause a clinically significant reduction in the effectiveness of the other two?

Carbamazepine, because it induces CYP3A4 and reduces levels of apixaban and atorvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apixaban, because it inhibits CYP3A4 and increases levels of the other medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin, because it competes with apixaban for renal elimination pathways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine, because it inhibits P-glycoprotein and traps drugs intracellularly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 673 of 1136

673. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient with type 2 diabetes and heart failure takes: metformin 1000 mg twice daily, glipizide 10 mg daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, and furosemide 40 mg daily. Which drug-disease interaction is most important to monitor?

Furosemide-induced renal impairment may decrease metformin clearance and increase lactic acidosis risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril may cause hypoglycemia by enhancing insulin secretion directly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glipizide may worsen heart failure by increasing cardiac afterload

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin may reduce the diuretic effect of furosemide through sodium retention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 674 of 1136

674. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking cyclosporine 100 mg twice daily is prescribed a new course of rifampin 600 mg daily for tuberculosis treatment. What is the expected outcome of this interaction, and why is it particularly dangerous?

Rifampin induces CYP3A4, dramatically lowering cyclosporine levels and risking organ rejection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rifampin inhibits CYP3A4, increasing cyclosporine to nephrotoxic concentrations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyclosporine blocks rifampin absorption, leading to tuberculosis treatment failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs compete for renal excretion, causing accumulation of both agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 675 of 1136

675. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician reviews a patient profile showing: haloperidol 5 mg twice daily, methadone 80 mg daily, and levofloxacin 750 mg daily. What additive adverse effect should the technician flag for pharmacist review?

Additive QT prolongation risk from all three medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Additive sedation risk from all three CNS depressant medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Additive hepatotoxicity risk from all three hepatically cleared agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Additive nephrotoxicity risk from all three renally cleared medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 676 of 1136

676. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient profile lists: spironolactone 25 mg daily, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole DS twice daily (new), and losartan 100 mg daily. What is the most dangerous potential outcome of this combination?

Severe hyperkalemia from three drugs that independently raise potassium levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe hypotension from additive vasodilatory effects of all three drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute liver failure from combined hepatotoxic metabolism of all three agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe hyponatremia from additive sodium-wasting effects of all three drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 677 of 1136

677. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking tacrolimus 2 mg twice daily starts drinking large quantities of grapefruit juice daily. Two weeks later, lab results show elevated tacrolimus trough levels and rising serum creatinine. What mechanism best explains these findings?

Grapefruit juice inhibited intestinal CYP3A4, increasing tacrolimus absorption and causing nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice induced hepatic CYP3A4, decreasing tacrolimus metabolism and causing accumulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice caused dehydration, reducing renal clearance of tacrolimus independently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice directly damaged renal tubules, mimicking tacrolimus nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 678 of 1136

678. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A technician processes prescriptions for: tetracycline 500 mg four times daily and ferrous sulfate 325 mg daily. The patient insists on taking all medications at the same time each morning. What should the technician communicate to the pharmacist?

Iron chelates tetracycline, reducing antibiotic absorption; the doses should be separated by 2 to 3 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron increases tetracycline metabolism, requiring a higher antibiotic dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tetracycline blocks iron absorption permanently, causing iron deficiency anemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs cause additive GI irritation but do not affect each other's absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 679 of 1136

679. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking a combination of duloxetine 60 mg daily and oxycodone 10 mg every 6 hours presents a new OTC purchase of dextromethorphan cough syrup. What should the technician flag for the pharmacist?

Triple serotonergic risk: duloxetine, oxycodone, and dextromethorphan all have serotonergic activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triple CNS depressant risk from combined sedative effects of all three agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triple hepatotoxic risk from combined liver metabolism of all three agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triple respiratory depression risk from combined opioid receptor activation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 680 of 1136

680. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient’s profile lists: amphotericin B IV (current), tobramycin IV (new order), and vancomycin IV (current). The patient’s baseline serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL. Which assessment best describes the interaction risk?

Triple nephrotoxic combination with high risk of acute kidney injury requiring close renal monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triple ototoxic combination requiring baseline and serial audiometry testing only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Triple hepatotoxic combination requiring liver function monitoring primarily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Low interaction risk because all three drugs have different mechanisms of renal clearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 681 of 1136

681. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Scene Safety

What is the FIRST action an EMT should take upon arriving at any emergency scene?

Ensure the scene is safe before approaching

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Begin patient assessment immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Request additional resources from dispatch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply personal protective equipment while walking toward the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 682 of 1136

682. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Scene Safety

You respond to a call at a warehouse where a worker has collapsed. As you approach, a coworker runs toward you shouting that there is a strong chemical odor inside. What is your most appropriate action?

Retreat to a safe distance and request a hazmat team

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hold your breath, enter quickly, and drag the patient out

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Put on a surgical mask and enter the building

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ask the coworker to go back inside and bring the patient out

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 683 of 1136

683. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Scene Safety

You are treating a patient with a fractured femur at a construction site when you notice a crane overhead begins to swing a heavy load toward your location. A coworker shouts a warning. The patient is on a backboard and partially immobilized. What is your priority?

Immediately move yourself and the patient to a safe area

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Complete the immobilization before moving the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shield the patient with your body until the crane passes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radio dispatch and wait for the construction crew to stop the crane

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 684 of 1136

684. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Mechanism Of Injury

Which of the following best describes a significant mechanism of injury?

A fall from a height greater than 20 feet for an adult

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A ground-level fall onto a carpeted surface

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A low-speed bicycle collision at 5 mph with no loss of consciousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A minor laceration from a kitchen knife

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 685 of 1136

685. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Mechanism Of Injury

You arrive at a single-vehicle crash where a sedan has struck a utility pole at approximately 40 mph. The windshield has a starred pattern on the driver’s side. The driver is alert and denies neck pain. Based on the mechanism of injury, what should you suspect?

Potential head and cervical spine injury despite the patient's denial of pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No significant injury because the patient is alert and talking

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only minor facial lacerations from the glass

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolated lower extremity injuries from the dashboard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 686 of 1136

686. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Mechanism Of Injury

A motorcyclist was traveling at highway speed when the bike struck the side of a turning car. The rider was thrown approximately 30 feet from the motorcycle and was wearing a helmet. Which injury pattern should the EMT most suspect?

Multiple system trauma including internal injuries

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolated helmet-related injuries only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minor abrasions and contusions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower extremity fractures only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 687 of 1136

687. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Mechanism Of Injury

You respond to a report of a person who fell. On arrival, you find an 82-year-old female who tripped on a rug and fell to the floor from a standing height. She is complaining of hip pain. Should this be considered a significant mechanism of injury?

Yes, because a ground-level fall in an elderly patient can produce significant injuries including hip fractures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because the fall was from standing height and does not meet trauma criteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because the patient is alert and able to describe what happened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if the patient has visible external bleeding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 688 of 1136

688. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Mechanism Of Injury

You respond to a two-car intersection collision. The driver of Vehicle 1, a compact car, was T-boned on the driver’s side by Vehicle 2, a large SUV traveling at approximately 45 mph. The driver’s side door is pushed inward about 14 inches. The driver is complaining only of left shoulder pain. Based on the mechanism of injury, what injuries should you have the highest index of suspicion for?

Left-sided thoracic and abdominal injuries including rib fractures and splenic injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolated left shoulder contusion with no other significant injuries

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Right-sided injuries because the force was redirected across the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower extremity fractures from the dashboard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 689 of 1136

689. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Nature Of Illness

During scene size-up for a medical patient, which of the following is the EMT attempting to determine?

The nature of illness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The mechanism of injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The Glasgow Coma Scale score

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's insurance information

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 690 of 1136

690. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Nature Of Illness

You are dispatched to a residence for an “unknown medical emergency.” On arrival, you find a 55-year-old male sitting in a chair, pale and diaphoretic, clutching his chest. A bottle of nitroglycerin is on the table beside him. What is the most likely nature of illness?

Cardiac emergency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Respiratory emergency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diabetic emergency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 691 of 1136

691. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Nature Of Illness

You respond to a call for a 30-year-old female who fainted at a restaurant. Bystanders tell you she had been complaining of abdominal pain and dizziness before she collapsed. She is now conscious but confused. What clue from the scene size-up helps you determine the nature of illness?

Bystander information about her symptoms before the collapse

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The type of food served at the restaurant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether the restaurant has an AED on the premises

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The number of other patrons present in the restaurant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 692 of 1136

692. Question

Category: Scene Size-Up and Safety: Nature Of Illness

You arrive at the home of a 68-year-old male. His wife states he has been vomiting blood for the past hour. You observe blood in the toilet and on towels. He appears weak and his skin is pale, cool, and clammy. Based on your scene size-up, which assessment approach should guide your care?

Treat as a medical emergency with a high index of suspicion for shock

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Treat as a trauma patient and assess for mechanism of injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Focus your assessment on airway management and ignore the bleeding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Perform a detailed secondary assessment before addressing his condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 693 of 1136

693. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on lithium therapy calls the pharmacy complaining of increased thirst, frequent urination, and hand tremors. Which concern should the technician relay to the pharmacist?

Possible lithium toxicity requiring serum level check

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Expected side effects that do not require intervention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A likely allergic reaction to the medication formulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Symptoms of an unrelated urinary tract infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 694 of 1136

694. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is processing a new prescription for ciprofloxacin for a 72-year-old patient who also takes prednisone. Which adverse effect concern should be flagged for the pharmacist?

Increased risk of tendon rupture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elevated risk of serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potential for severe hypoglycemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Likelihood of developing kidney stones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 695 of 1136

695. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient picking up doxycycline asks the pharmacy technician if there are any special precautions. Which counseling point is most appropriate to relay?

Avoid prolonged sun exposure and use sunscreen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the medication on an empty stomach only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Avoid all dairy products for 48 hours after dosing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Do not take with any other oral medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 696 of 1136

696. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A female patient of childbearing age brings a new prescription for isotretinoin. Which requirement must be met before the pharmacy can dispense this medication?

Verification of enrollment and compliance with iPLEDGE

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Completion of a 7-day medication therapy trial period

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Written approval from two independent prescribers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Documentation of a negative tuberculosis skin test

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 697 of 1136

697. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking sertraline and tramadol simultaneously presents with agitation, rapid heart rate, and muscle twitching. Which condition should the technician suspect and alert the pharmacist about?

Serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticholinergic toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 698 of 1136

698. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A technician notices a prescription for haloperidol in a 78-year-old patient diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. Why should this be flagged for the pharmacist?

Antipsychotics carry a black box warning for increased mortality in elderly dementia patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haloperidol is contraindicated in patients over the age of 65

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication requires prior authorization for all elderly patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haloperidol is only available in injectable form for this population

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 699 of 1136

699. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on atorvastatin reports new onset of dark brown urine and severe muscle pain. What serious adverse effect may be occurring?

Rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatic encephalopathy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute pancreatitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hemolytic anemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 700 of 1136

700. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient calls the pharmacy reporting a skin rash with blistering after starting lamotrigine one week ago. What serious dermatologic reaction should the pharmacist be alerted about?

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact dermatitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Drug-induced lupus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Photosensitivity reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 701 of 1136

701. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking oxybutynin complains of constipation, blurred vision, and difficulty urinating. These symptoms are best described as which type of effect?

Anticholinergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adrenergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dopaminergic effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 702 of 1136

702. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient profile and sees that the patient takes both oxycodone and alprazolam. Which black box warning concern is associated with this combination?

Risk of respiratory depression, coma, and death from concurrent opioid and benzodiazepine use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased likelihood of serotonin syndrome from dual CNS agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potential for severe hepatotoxicity from combined hepatic metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elevated risk of QT prolongation and cardiac arrhythmia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 703 of 1136

703. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on warfarin presents with an INR of 5.8 and reports blood in the stool. Which action should the pharmacy technician take?

Immediately alert the pharmacist about the elevated INR and bleeding symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient increase dietary vitamin K intake

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Advise the patient to skip the next two warfarin doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient take an extra dose of aspirin for clot prevention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 704 of 1136

704. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking amiodarone asks about required monitoring. Which organ systems require regular surveillance during amiodarone therapy?

Thyroid, liver, and lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kidneys, pancreas, and bone marrow

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adrenal glands, spleen, and lymph nodes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gallbladder, prostate, and skeletal muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 705 of 1136

705. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient new to fluoxetine reports mild nausea and headache during the first week of therapy. How should these symptoms be characterized?

Common, expected side effects that often resolve with continued use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Signs of a serious allergic reaction requiring immediate discontinuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Indicators of serotonin syndrome requiring emergency treatment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Evidence of drug toxicity from an excessively high starting dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 706 of 1136

706. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 16-year-old patient has been prescribed escitalopram for depression. Which black box warning should the technician be aware of when processing this prescription?

Increased risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in patients under 25

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Potential for severe hepatotoxicity in adolescent patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risk of growth plate closure in pediatric patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Likelihood of cardiac arrhythmias in younger patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 707 of 1136

707. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient develops a widespread rash with hives and swelling of the lips shortly after taking amoxicillin. This reaction is best classified as which type of adverse event?

An allergic reaction (hypersensitivity)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A common dose-dependent side effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A pharmacological extension of the drug action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An idiosyncratic non-immune mediated response

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 708 of 1136

708. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient taking gentamicin intravenously reports ringing in the ears and dizziness. Which adverse effect is most likely occurring?

Ototoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nephrotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cardiotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 709 of 1136

709. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A 70-year-old patient takes haloperidol, oxycodone, and lorazepam. The patient is found lethargic with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which combination of medications is the most likely contributor to this presentation?

Oxycodone and lorazepam causing respiratory depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haloperidol and lorazepam causing serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxycodone and haloperidol causing neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haloperidol and oxycodone causing anticholinergic toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 710 of 1136

710. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient takes methotrexate weekly, lisinopril daily, and ibuprofen as needed. The patient’s latest lab results show elevated serum creatinine and low platelet count. Which drug combination most likely contributed to these findings?

Methotrexate and ibuprofen, because NSAIDs reduce methotrexate clearance and increase toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril and ibuprofen, because both drugs directly suppress bone marrow

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate and lisinopril, because ACE inhibitors block methotrexate absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen and lisinopril, because both drugs impair hepatic platelet production

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 711 of 1136

711. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on risperidone develops high fever (104F), severe muscle rigidity, elevated creatine kinase, and altered consciousness. The patient also takes sertraline. Which condition is most consistent with this presentation?

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome from risperidone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin syndrome from sertraline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Malignant hyperthermia from a drug allergy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stevens-Johnson syndrome from risperidone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 712 of 1136

712. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient takes lithium, levothyroxine, and hydrochlorothiazide. Recent labs show a lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L (therapeutic range: 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L) and elevated TSH. Which medication interaction best explains these findings?

Hydrochlorothiazide decreasing lithium excretion, leading to toxic levels and thyroid dysfunction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levothyroxine increasing lithium absorption in the gastrointestinal tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lithium directly inhibiting the renal clearance of hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levothyroxine and hydrochlorothiazide synergistically impairing lithium metabolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 713 of 1136

713. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing carbamazepine, phenytoin, and a new prescription for lamotrigine. Considering the adverse effect profiles of these medications, which serious shared risk should concern the technician most?

All three medications are associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications increase the risk of serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications carry a black box warning for hepatic failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications are known to cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 714 of 1136

714. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

An elderly patient taking diphenhydramine, amitriptyline, and benztropine is admitted with confusion, urinary retention, tachycardia, and dry skin. Which pharmacological mechanism best explains this cluster of symptoms?

Cumulative anticholinergic burden from all three medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonergic excess from amitriptyline and diphenhydramine interaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dopamine blockade from benztropine causing neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Histamine receptor overstimulation from diphenhydramine toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 715 of 1136

715. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient takes venlafaxine, sumatriptan, and ondansetron. She presents with confusion, diaphoresis, diarrhea, and myoclonus. The technician suspects serotonin syndrome. Which of the patient’s medications have serotonergic activity that could contribute to this presentation?

All three: venlafaxine, sumatriptan, and ondansetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only venlafaxine and sumatriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only venlafaxine and ondansetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only sumatriptan and ondansetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 716 of 1136

716. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy technician is reviewing profiles for a quality assurance project on black box warning compliance. Which patient scenario represents the greatest number of concurrent black box warning concerns?

A 22-year-old on duloxetine, oxycodone, and diazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A 55-year-old on metformin, amlodipine, and omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A 40-year-old on levothyroxine, atorvastatin, and lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A 68-year-old on metoprolol, hydrochlorothiazide, and aspirin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 717 of 1136

717. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient on levofloxacin, prednisone, and warfarin develops Achilles tendon pain and notices increased bruising. Which assessment best explains the clinical picture?

Levofloxacin and prednisone increase tendon rupture risk, while levofloxacin potentiates warfarin's anticoagulant effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prednisone is causing both tendon damage and platelet destruction independently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Warfarin is the sole cause of both tendon pain and bruising as dose-dependent effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levofloxacin is causing an allergic reaction manifesting as joint pain and purpura

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 718 of 1136

718. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What is the primary indication for metformin?

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperlipidemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypothyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 719 of 1136

719. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Lisinopril is primarily indicated for the treatment of which condition?

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Asthma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Type 2 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 720 of 1136

720. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What is the primary OTC indication for omeprazole?

Frequent heartburn

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute migraine headache

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Seasonal allergic rhinitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mild to moderate pain relief

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 721 of 1136

721. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Naloxone is an emergency medication used to reverse the effects of which class of drugs?

Opioids

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticoagulants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticholinergics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 722 of 1136

722. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Diphenhydramine is available OTC for which primary indication?

Allergy symptom relief and sleep aid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acid reflux and stomach ulcers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Muscle spasms and joint pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nasal congestion and sinus pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 723 of 1136

723. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What is the primary indication for glucagon in an emergency setting?

Severe hypoglycemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anaphylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Opioid overdose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute asthma exacerbation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 724 of 1136

724. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Epinephrine auto-injectors are indicated for the emergency treatment of which condition?

Anaphylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe hypoglycemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cardiac arrest with asystole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute opioid overdose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 725 of 1136

725. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) is a combination antibiotic indicated for infections caused by which type of organisms?

Beta-lactamase producing bacteria

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fungal organisms resistant to azoles

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Viral infections resistant to antivirals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 726 of 1136

726. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Ibuprofen is available OTC for which primary indications?

Pain relief, fever reduction, and inflammation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acid reflux, nausea, and bloating

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cough suppression, congestion, and sore throat

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insomnia, anxiety, and muscle relaxation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 727 of 1136

727. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Acetaminophen is indicated for which of the following?

Pain relief and fever reduction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inflammation and joint swelling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nasal congestion and sinus pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nausea and motion sickness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 728 of 1136

728. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Gabapentin has multiple approved indications. Which of the following is an FDA-approved use?

Postherpetic neuralgia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Major depressive disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 729 of 1136

729. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents a new prescription for lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide 20/12.5 mg. For which condition is this combination most commonly prescribed?

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Congestive heart failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic kidney disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peripheral edema

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 730 of 1136

730. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A mother brings her 4-year-old child to the pharmacy asking for a recommendation for fever. Which OTC medication is most appropriate for the technician to suggest the pharmacist recommend?

Acetaminophen suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin chewable tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen sodium caplets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bismuth subsalicylate liquid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 731 of 1136

731. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient with a known severe peanut allergy asks the pharmacy technician about the medication they should always carry. Which emergency medication is indicated for this patient?

Epinephrine auto-injector

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naloxone nasal spray

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Glucagon injection kit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Albuterol metered-dose inhaler

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 732 of 1136

732. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for topiramate for a patient with a documented history of migraines. Is this an appropriate indication for topiramate?

Yes, topiramate is FDA-approved for migraine prophylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, topiramate is only approved for seizure disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, topiramate is only approved for weight management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only when used in combination with valproic acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 733 of 1136

733. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents a prescription for gabapentin 300 mg three times daily. The diagnosis listed is diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The technician should recognize this as which type of use?

An off-label use, as gabapentin is not FDA-approved for diabetic neuropathy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An FDA-approved indication for gabapentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An inappropriate use that requires prescriber clarification

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A contraindicated use due to diabetic complications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 734 of 1136

734. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with suspected severe hypoglycemia. A family member has a glucagon emergency kit. What is the correct use of this medication?

Inject the glucagon to raise blood glucose levels when the patient cannot swallow

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Administer the glucagon orally to slowly increase glucose levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply the glucagon topically to facilitate transdermal glucose absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hold the glucagon and administer oral glucose once the patient regains consciousness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 735 of 1136

735. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg for a 6-year-old patient with acute otitis media. Is this an appropriate pediatric indication?

Yes, amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media in children

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, amoxicillin is only indicated for urinary tract infections in children

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, fluoroquinolones are the first-line treatment for pediatric ear infections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only when combined with a macrolide antibiotic for adequate coverage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 736 of 1136

736. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A customer asks the pharmacy technician which OTC product to recommend for occasional heartburn that occurs once a week. Which product category is most appropriate to suggest the pharmacist discuss?

An antacid such as calcium carbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A prescription H2 blocker such as famotidine 40 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A prokinetic agent such as metoclopramide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 737 of 1136

737. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A technician receives a prescription for metformin for a patient whose chart indicates polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) but not diabetes. How should the technician interpret this?

Metformin is commonly used off-label for PCOS to improve insulin resistance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescription is likely an error, as metformin is only for diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin is FDA-approved specifically for the treatment of PCOS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescriber likely intended to write methotrexate instead of metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 738 of 1136

738. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents a new prescription for naloxone nasal spray to keep at home. The patient also takes hydrocodone/acetaminophen for chronic pain. What is the purpose of the naloxone prescription?

To have on hand for emergency reversal of accidental opioid overdose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To take daily as a preventive measure against opioid tolerance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To use as an adjunct pain reliever alongside the hydrocodone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To replace the hydrocodone when breakthrough pain occurs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 739 of 1136

739. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A prescriber writes for amlodipine 5 mg daily for a patient. Which condition is this medication most commonly prescribed to treat?

Hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atrial fibrillation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Type 2 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Deep vein thrombosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 740 of 1136

740. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician notices a prescription for montelukast for a 5-year-old patient. Which condition is montelukast indicated for in pediatric patients?

Asthma and allergic rhinitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute bacterial sinusitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 741 of 1136

741. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A technician is processing a prescription for albuterol inhaler for a patient with newly diagnosed asthma. What role does albuterol serve in asthma management?

Quick-relief (rescue) bronchodilator for acute symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Long-term controller medication for daily maintenance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anti-inflammatory agent to prevent airway remodeling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mucolytic agent to thin and clear airway secretions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 742 of 1136

742. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient picks up a prescription for levothyroxine and asks the technician what condition it treats. Which response accurately describes the primary indication?

It replaces thyroid hormone in patients with hypothyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It lowers thyroid hormone levels in patients with hyperthyroidism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It treats thyroid cancer by destroying overactive thyroid cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It prevents goiter formation by suppressing iodine absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 743 of 1136

743. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient takes gabapentin 300 mg three times daily, sertraline 100 mg daily, and naproxen 500 mg twice daily. Considering the approved and off-label indications of these medications, which condition could ALL three drugs plausibly be treating aspects of?

Fibromyalgia with comorbid depression and chronic pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Type 2 diabetes with neuropathy and depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epilepsy with breakthrough seizures and inflammation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Parkinson disease with tremor and mood changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 744 of 1136

744. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician reviews a medication profile: metformin 1000 mg twice daily, losartan 50 mg daily, and atorvastatin 40 mg daily. Which underlying condition ties all three medications together as part of a comprehensive treatment plan?

Type 2 diabetes with hypertension and hyperlipidemia (metabolic syndrome)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic kidney disease from autoimmune nephritis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary prevention of stroke in a healthy patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 745 of 1136

745. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A 10-year-old patient is prescribed topiramate 25 mg twice daily. The prescriber’s notes indicate the diagnosis is epilepsy. The patient’s parent asks if topiramate can also help with the child’s frequent migraines. What is the most accurate response the pharmacist could provide?

Topiramate is FDA-approved for both epilepsy and migraine prophylaxis in appropriate age groups

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Topiramate is only approved for epilepsy and should not be used for migraines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Topiramate can treat migraines but only in adults over the age of 18

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Topiramate requires a different dosing schedule that prohibits dual use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 746 of 1136

746. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy receives prescriptions for a patient: amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg, prednisone 20 mg taper, and fluticasone nasal spray. Based on the combination of medications, which condition is the prescriber most likely treating?

Acute bacterial sinusitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Community-acquired pneumonia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acute exacerbation of COPD

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Streptococcal pharyngitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 747 of 1136

747. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile containing duloxetine, pregabalin, and metformin. Which clinical scenario best matches this medication combination?

A diabetic patient with painful peripheral neuropathy and comorbid depression

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient with epilepsy being treated with triple anticonvulsant therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis on disease-modifying therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A patient with chronic migraine using preventive medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 748 of 1136

748. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient has prescriptions for both naloxone nasal spray and buprenorphine/naloxone sublingual film. The technician is confused because naloxone is an opioid antagonist yet the patient also receives an opioid treatment. Which explanation is most accurate?

Buprenorphine/naloxone treats opioid use disorder; the separate naloxone is for emergency overdose reversal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both prescriptions serve the same purpose and one is likely a duplicate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The naloxone nasal spray is meant to counteract the buprenorphine component

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescriber made an error, as these medications are contraindicated together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 749 of 1136

749. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A technician is reviewing a pediatric patient profile that includes amoxicillin suspension, prednisolone oral solution, and albuterol nebulization solution. Which condition is most consistent with this combination of medications in a child?

Acute asthma exacerbation with a concurrent bacterial infection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Childhood epilepsy with breakthrough seizure activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with acute joint inflammation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pediatric gastroesophageal reflux with esophageal erosion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 750 of 1136

750. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient’s medication profile shows metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily, lisinopril 10 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, and carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily. A new prescription arrives for spironolactone 25 mg daily. Based on this regimen, which condition is most likely being managed?

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uncomplicated essential hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stable angina pectoris

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atrial fibrillation with rate control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 751 of 1136

751. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician is conducting an inventory review and notices that the pharmacy stocks both OTC ibuprofen 200 mg tablets and prescription ibuprofen 800 mg tablets. A customer asks about the difference. Which statement most accurately describes the distinction?

Both contain the same drug; OTC is for mild pain and fever, while prescription strength treats conditions requiring higher anti-inflammatory doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

OTC ibuprofen has a different formulation that makes it safer than prescription ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prescription ibuprofen contains additional active ingredients not found in the OTC version

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

OTC ibuprofen treats inflammation while prescription ibuprofen is limited to pain relief

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 752 of 1136

752. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A prescriber writes a prescription for metformin 500 mg twice daily for a patient with no documented history of diabetes. The patient’s chart lists a BMI of 38 and polycystic ovary syndrome. The technician should recognize that metformin is being used for which purpose?

Off-label management of insulin resistance associated with PCOS and obesity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

FDA-approved treatment of obesity as a standalone weight-loss medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

FDA-approved management of PCOS as a first-line hormonal therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An error, as metformin should never be prescribed without a diabetes diagnosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 753 of 1136

753. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient recently started taking sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim and develops a widespread rash with facial swelling. The technician should recognize this as which type of reaction?

A sulfonamide hypersensitivity reaction requiring pharmacist notification

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A normal adjustment reaction that will resolve within 48 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An expected photosensitivity reaction from sun exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A dose-dependent side effect managed by reducing the dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 754 of 1136

754. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient takes clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. The patient’s latest complete blood count shows an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900 cells/mcL. Which action is required based on this lab result?

The pharmacy must not dispense clozapine because the ANC is below the safe threshold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy can dispense with a note to recheck labs in 30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy should dispense a reduced dose until the ANC normalizes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy should dispense as usual since this is a normal lab value

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 755 of 1136

755. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

What is the primary indication for atorvastatin?

Hyperlipidemia and cardiovascular risk reduction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertension and fluid retention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Type 2 diabetes and insulin resistance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gastroesophageal reflux and peptic ulcers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 756 of 1136

756. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A prescriber writes for fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. The technician is unsure whether this is an appropriate use. Which statement is correct?

Fluoxetine is FDA-approved for the treatment of bulimia nervosa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine is only FDA-approved for major depressive disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine is contraindicated in patients with eating disorders

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine requires a special REMS authorization for bulimia treatment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 757 of 1136

757. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for ondansetron ODT 4 mg for a 7-year-old child scheduled for surgery. What is the indication for this medication?

Prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with surgery

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Treatment of pediatric gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevention of motion sickness during travel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Management of acute diarrhea in pediatric patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 758 of 1136

758. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient with a history of gout presents a new prescription for colchicine 0.6 mg. Which condition is this medication being used to treat?

Acute gout flares and gout prophylaxis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic osteoarthritis of the knee and hip

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rheumatoid arthritis with joint inflammation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fibromyalgia with widespread musculoskeletal pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 759 of 1136

759. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A technician processes a prescription for pantoprazole 40 mg daily for a patient with a documented diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Is this an appropriate indication?

Yes, proton pump inhibitors are indicated for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome requires surgical treatment only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, H2 receptor antagonists are the only approved medical therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only when given intravenously and not in oral form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 760 of 1136

760. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Humira?

adalimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

etanercept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

infliximab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

certolizumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 761 of 1136

761. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Enbrel is the brand name for which medication?

etanercept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

adalimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

infliximab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

golimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 762 of 1136

762. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Xarelto?

rivaroxaban

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

apixaban

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dabigatran

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

edoxaban

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 763 of 1136

763. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for apixaban?

Eliquis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Xarelto

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pradaxa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Savaysa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 764 of 1136

764. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Pradaxa?

dabigatran

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

rivaroxaban

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

apixaban

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 765 of 1136

765. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Lovenox is the brand name for which medication?

enoxaparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

heparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

fondaparinux

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dalteparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 766 of 1136

766. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for tacrolimus?

Prograf

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoral

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CellCept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rapamune

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 767 of 1136

767. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Remicade is the brand name for which medication?

infliximab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

adalimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

etanercept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

rituximab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 768 of 1136

768. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Neupogen?

filgrastim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

pegfilgrastim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

sargramostim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

epoetin alfa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 769 of 1136

769. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for meropenem?

Merrem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Invanz

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primaxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Doribax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 770 of 1136

770. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Ditropan is the brand name for which medication?

oxybutynin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tolterodine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

solifenacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

mirabegron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 771 of 1136

771. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Zofran 4 mg ODT. Which generic medication should be selected?

ondansetron orally disintegrating tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

granisetron orally disintegrating tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

promethazine orally disintegrating tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

metoclopramide orally disintegrating tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 772 of 1136

772. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber writes for Proscar 5 mg daily. What generic name should the pharmacy technician enter during order processing?

finasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tamsulosin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dutasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

alfuzosin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 773 of 1136

773. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient presents a prescription for CellCept 500 mg BID. Which generic medication should the technician dispense?

mycophenolate mofetil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tacrolimus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

cyclosporine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

sirolimus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 774 of 1136

774. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A physician orders Invanz 1 g IV daily. Which generic antibiotic should the pharmacy technician prepare?

ertapenem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

meropenem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

imipenem/cilastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

doripenem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 775 of 1136

775. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A nurse requests Kytril 1 mg IV for a chemotherapy patient experiencing nausea. What generic medication should the pharmacy dispense?

granisetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ondansetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

palonosetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dolasetron

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 776 of 1136

776. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription is received for Harvoni. Which combination of antiviral medications does this product contain?

ledipasvir/sofosbuvir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

sofosbuvir/velpatasvir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

elbasvir/grazoprevir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

glecaprevir/pibrentasvir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 777 of 1136

777. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient brings in a prescription for Viagra 50 mg. What generic name should the pharmacy technician select?

sildenafil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tadalafil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

vardenafil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

avanafil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 778 of 1136

778. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

An HIV patient’s medication profile includes Truvada. Which combination of antiretroviral agents does this product contain?

emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

abacavir/lamivudine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

lamivudine/zidovudine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 779 of 1136

779. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription reads: Imitrex 100 mg PO PRN migraine. What generic medication should be dispensed?

sumatriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

rizatriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

zolmitriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

eletriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 780 of 1136

780. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A dermatologist prescribes Elidel cream for a patient with eczema. What is the generic name of this medication?

pimecrolimus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tacrolimus topical

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

clobetasol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

hydrocortisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 781 of 1136

781. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A hospital formulary lists Vfend for invasive aspergillosis treatment. What is the generic name?

voriconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

fluconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

itraconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

posaconazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 782 of 1136

782. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is verifying a transplant patient’s medication list. The patient takes Prograf, CellCept, and prednisone. Which of the following correctly matches all the generic names?

tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tacrolimus, azathioprine, prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

cyclosporine, azathioprine, prednisolone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 783 of 1136

783. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient is prescribed both Xarelto and Lovenox. Identifying the generic names, which pair of anticoagulants has been ordered?

rivaroxaban and enoxaparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

apixaban and enoxaparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

rivaroxaban and heparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dabigatran and dalteparin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 784 of 1136

784. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s chemotherapy supportive care orders include Zofran, Decadron, and Neupogen. Which set of generic names correctly corresponds to all three brand names?

ondansetron, dexamethasone, filgrastim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

granisetron, dexamethasone, filgrastim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ondansetron, prednisone, pegfilgrastim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ondansetron, dexamethasone, sargramostim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 785 of 1136

785. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient is transitioning from IV to oral antifungal therapy. The physician switches from Cancidas (caspofungin) to an oral azole. Which oral antifungal brand and generic pair is correctly matched?

Sporanox (itraconazole)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sporanox (voriconazole)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Noxafil (fluconazole)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diflucan (itraconazole)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 786 of 1136

786. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a BPH patient’s medication profile containing Flomax and Avodart. What are the correct generic names for these medications?

tamsulosin and dutasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

tamsulosin and finasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

alfuzosin and dutasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

doxazosin and finasteride

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 787 of 1136

787. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient with HIV is taking a regimen that includes Descovy and Tivicay. Which generic medications do these brand names represent?

emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide and dolutegravir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate and raltegravir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

abacavir/lamivudine and dolutegravir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide and elvitegravir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 788 of 1136

788. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A technician is processing orders and sees prescriptions for both Xolair and Humira on the same patient’s profile. Which pair of generic names corresponds to these biologics?

omalizumab and adalimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

omalizumab and etanercept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

dupilumab and adalimumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

benralizumab and infliximab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 789 of 1136

789. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A physician prescribes Ajovy for migraine prevention. The pharmacy technician must identify the correct generic name to process the order. What is the generic name for Ajovy?

fremanezumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

galcanezumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

erenumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

sumatriptan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 790 of 1136

790. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A technician receives a prescription for Latuda and notices the patient also takes Seroquel. Which generic names correspond to Latuda and Seroquel, and which drug class do they share?

lurasidone and quetiapine; both are atypical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

lurasidone and quetiapine; both are typical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

aripiprazole and quetiapine; both are atypical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

lurasidone and olanzapine; both are atypical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 791 of 1136

791. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is restocking the shelf and must differentiate between two similarly named products: Tobradex and TobraDex ST. Both contain tobramycin and dexamethasone. What distinguishes TobraDex ST from the original Tobradex?

TobraDex ST has a lower tobramycin concentration (0.3% vs 0.3%) but a higher dexamethasone concentration (0.05% vs 0.1%) in a suspension with a xanthan gum base

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TobraDex ST contains a higher tobramycin concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TobraDex ST is available only as an ointment formulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

TobraDex ST contains prednisolone instead of dexamethasone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 792 of 1136

792. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is reconstituting amoxicillin oral suspension. Where should the reconstituted product be stored?

In the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At controlled room temperature of 20 to 25 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In the freezer at minus 25 to minus 10 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In a warm, dry cabinet away from other medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 793 of 1136

793. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A hospital pharmacy is designing a new medication storage layout. The pharmacist asks the technician to evaluate which medications should be separated on shelving to reduce errors. Which combination poses the greatest storage-related risk if placed adjacent to each other?

Heparin 10 units/mL vials and heparin 10,000 units/mL vials

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin 250 mg capsules and amoxicillin 500 mg capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin 500 mg tablets and metformin 1,000 mg tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen 200 mg tablets and ibuprofen 400 mg tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 794 of 1136

794. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is auditing the controlled substance storage area and discovers that a Schedule II medication has been stored in an unlocked cabinet alongside OTC products. The pharmacy is located in a retail setting. What is the most significant concern with this finding?

The medication is not secured according to DEA requirements for Schedule II substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication may have been exposed to excessive light from store fixtures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The OTC products may have contaminated the Schedule II medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication's temperature stability has been compromised by the open cabinet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 795 of 1136

795. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy stores both varicella vaccine (requires frozen storage) and influenza vaccine (requires refrigerated storage) in the same stand-alone freezer-refrigerator combination unit. A technician finds that the freezer portion has failed but the refrigerator section is functioning normally. Which analysis is most important for determining the next steps?

Reviewing the temperature data log to determine how long the varicella vaccine was out of range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Checking whether the influenza vaccine was affected by the freezer malfunction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Determining how many doses of each vaccine remain in the storage unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contacting the unit manufacturer to schedule a same-day repair appointment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 796 of 1136

796. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A long-term care pharmacy ships medications to nursing facilities in insulated containers with gel packs. On a particularly hot summer day, a facility reports that the interior of a delivered container measured 28 degrees Celsius upon arrival. The shipment contains lisinopril tablets, metformin tablets, and insulin glargine pens. Which product requires the most urgent evaluation?

Insulin glargine pens, because they require refrigerated storage during transit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril tablets, because they degrade rapidly above 25 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin tablets, because they are sensitive to brief heat exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three products equally, because they share the same storage requirements

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 797 of 1136

797. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy is implementing a new USP 800 compliance plan. The pharmacist-in-charge asks the lead technician to assess the current hazardous drug storage setup. The technician observes that hazardous drugs are stored in a room with positive air pressure relative to surrounding areas, and staff enter without protective equipment to retrieve inventory. Which deficiency should be addressed first?

The positive air pressure must be changed to negative pressure to contain hazardous vapors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The room must be relocated to a separate building from the main pharmacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All hazardous drugs must be individually sealed in zip-lock bags before shelving

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The storage room must have a dedicated handwashing sink installed before any other changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 798 of 1136

798. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A retail pharmacy conducts a quarterly storage audit. The technician finds that promethazine suppositories are stored at room temperature, an opened bottle of latanoprost eye drops has been in the refrigerator for 45 days, and nitroglycerin tablets are in a plastic snap-cap vial. Which finding represents the most significant storage error?

Nitroglycerin tablets stored in a plastic snap-cap vial instead of the original glass container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promethazine suppositories stored at room temperature instead of refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Latanoprost eye drops kept refrigerated for 45 days after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three findings represent equally significant storage errors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 799 of 1136

799. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A hospital pharmacy uses automated dispensing cabinets (ADCs) on patient care units. During a medication use evaluation, the pharmacy team discovers that several look-alike, sound-alike (LASA) pairs are stored in adjacent pockets within the same ADC drawer. Which strategy would be most effective in reducing selection errors?

Separate LASA medications into different drawers and apply tall-man lettering alerts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increase the par levels for both medications to ensure adequate supply

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Add barcode scanning verification at the point of medication administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Require two pharmacists to verify every order for LASA medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 800 of 1136

800. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the emergency medication supply for a clinic. The crash cart contains epinephrine 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) ampules, atropine vials, dextrose 50% syringes, and sodium bicarbonate prefilled syringes. The technician notices that the crash cart is stored near a window that receives direct afternoon sunlight. Which medication in the cart is at greatest risk from this storage location?

Epinephrine ampules, because epinephrine degrades rapidly when exposed to light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atropine vials, because atropine is chemically unstable at any temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dextrose 50% syringes, because concentrated sugar solutions crystallize in light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sodium bicarbonate syringes, because bicarbonate reacts with ultraviolet radiation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 801 of 1136

801. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

During a state board of pharmacy inspection, the inspector reviews the pharmacy’s vaccine storage practices. The inspector notes that the pharmacy uses a dorm-style combination refrigerator-freezer unit for vaccine storage. The unit temperatures are within range and logs are current. What is the most likely finding the inspector will cite?

The type of storage unit does not meet CDC or VFC recommendations for vaccine storage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The temperature logs should be recorded three times daily instead of twice

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaccines must be stored in a walk-in cooler rather than a standalone unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy should be using mercury thermometers instead of digital loggers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 802 of 1136

802. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which factor has the greatest effect on the rate of drug degradation?

Temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Container color

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Barometric pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shelf position

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 803 of 1136

803. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the maximum beyond-use date for a non-sterile compounded preparation made with commercially manufactured drug products, according to USP 795?

180 days or the earliest expiration date of any ingredient, whichever is earlier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days from the date of compounding regardless of ingredients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

365 days from the date of compounding in all cases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days from the date of compounding if stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 804 of 1136

804. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

How long is reconstituted amoxicillin suspension stable when stored in the refrigerator?

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 805 of 1136

805. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the difference between an expiration date and a beyond-use date?

An expiration date is set by the manufacturer; a beyond-use date is assigned by the pharmacy after dispensing or compounding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An expiration date applies only to compounded products; a beyond-use date applies to manufactured products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An expiration date indicates when a drug becomes toxic; a beyond-use date indicates reduced potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An expiration date is required by the DEA; a beyond-use date is optional and set by pharmacy policy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 806 of 1136

806. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which visual sign indicates that a clear injectable solution has degraded and should not be administered?

Visible particulate matter or cloudiness in the solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A slight yellow tint consistent with the drug's normal appearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Condensation on the outside of the vial from refrigeration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Air bubbles that appear after gently swirling the vial

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 807 of 1136

807. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Oxidation is a common degradation pathway for drugs. Which type of additive is used to prevent oxidative degradation in pharmaceutical formulations?

Antioxidants such as ascorbic acid or sodium bisulfite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Buffering agents such as phosphate or citrate salts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Preservatives such as benzalkonium chloride or thimerosal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emulsifying agents such as polysorbate 80 or lecithin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 808 of 1136

808. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

How long are opened ophthalmic eye drop solutions generally considered stable for use?

28 days after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

90 days after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Until the manufacturer expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 809 of 1136

809. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What type of incompatibility occurs when two IV medications mixed together produce a visible precipitate?

Physical incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemical incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pharmacokinetic incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 810 of 1136

810. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the primary purpose of assigning a beyond-use date to a compounded sterile preparation?

To limit the time the preparation can be used and ensure both sterility and stability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To indicate when the preparation reaches maximum therapeutic effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To establish billing and insurance reimbursement timelines for the product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To comply with DEA tracking requirements for compounded substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 811 of 1136

811. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which degradation pathway is most commonly associated with drugs exposed to excessive moisture?

Hydrolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxidation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polymerization

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isomerization

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 812 of 1136

812. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

How long is reconstituted cephalexin oral suspension stable when stored in the refrigerator?

14 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

7 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

21 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 813 of 1136

813. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which storage labeling element is required on all compounded preparations?

The beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The original manufacturer lot number

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The name of the wholesale distributor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The National Drug Code of each ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 814 of 1136

814. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician prepares an IV admixture of vancomycin in normal saline. After mixing, the technician notices that the solution has turned cloudy. What should the technician do?

Discard the preparation and prepare a new IV admixture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Filter the solution through a 0.22 micron filter and dispense it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allow the solution to sit for 30 minutes to see if it clears

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Add additional normal saline to dilute the cloudiness before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 815 of 1136

815. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician compounds a non-sterile cream using USP-grade ingredients with no stability data available. According to USP 795, what beyond-use date should be assigned?

A conservative BUD based on the nature of the preparation, not exceeding 180 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

365 days from the date of compounding for all non-sterile preparations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The earliest expiration date of any ingredient plus 90 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days regardless of the formulation type or storage conditions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 816 of 1136

816. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A nurse calls the pharmacy to ask if two IV medications can be given simultaneously through a Y-site. The technician looks up the compatibility and finds that the two drugs are listed as incompatible at the Y-site. What should the technician recommend?

Administer the medications through separate IV lines or flush between infusions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Infuse both medications at a slower rate through the same Y-site

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mix the two medications in a larger volume bag to reduce concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Warm both IV bags to room temperature to improve their compatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 817 of 1136

817. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician prepares a compounded sterile preparation (CSP) categorized as Category 1 under USP 797 and stores it in the refrigerator. What is the maximum beyond-use date that may be assigned?

12 hours at controlled room temperature or 24 hours refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

48 hours at controlled room temperature or 14 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24 hours at controlled room temperature or 72 hours refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days at controlled room temperature or 60 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 818 of 1136

818. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician notices that a bottle of phenytoin oral suspension has separated into two distinct layers. After shaking vigorously, the layers do not recombine. What is the appropriate action?

Do not dispense the product and notify the pharmacist of the potential degradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the product with instructions to shake well before each dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Warm the bottle under hot water to help the layers recombine properly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer the suspension to a new bottle to improve its physical appearance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 819 of 1136

819. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A patient returns to the pharmacy with a bottle of amoxicillin suspension that was reconstituted 18 days ago and stored in the refrigerator. The patient has several doses remaining. What should the technician advise?

Discard the remaining suspension because it has exceeded the 14-day stability period

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue using the suspension since it was stored properly in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer the suspension to a new bottle to extend the beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Freeze the remaining doses to preserve the medication for later use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 820 of 1136

820. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing a potassium chloride IV admixture in dextrose 5% in water. After adding the potassium chloride, the technician notices small white crystals forming in the bag. What is the most appropriate action?

Discard the bag and prepare a new admixture, verifying the concentration and technique

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Warm the bag to dissolve the crystals before sending it to the patient unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Agitate the bag vigorously until the crystals are no longer visible

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Send the bag to the floor with a note to the nurse about the crystals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 821 of 1136

821. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A patient asks the pharmacy technician how to store their newly opened bottle of latanoprost eye drops. What is the correct storage instruction?

Store at room temperature and discard 28 days after opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in the refrigerator and use until the manufacturer expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in the freezer and thaw before each use to maintain freshness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store at room temperature and use until the manufacturer expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 822 of 1136

822. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician observes that a vial of epinephrine injection has turned from clear and colorless to a pinkish-brown color. What does this color change indicate?

The epinephrine has undergone oxidative degradation and should not be used

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The preservative in the vial has activated and the drug remains effective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The vial was shaken too vigorously and needs time to settle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The drug has reached its maximum potency and is ready for administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 823 of 1136

823. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician is labeling a compounded non-sterile ointment. The preparation was made today using three USP-grade ingredients. The earliest ingredient expiration date is 8 months from now. No stability data is available for this specific formulation. What beyond-use date should the technician assign?

180 days from the date of compounding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8 months from the date of compounding to match the earliest ingredient expiration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

365 days from the date of compounding per standard non-sterile guidelines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days from the date of compounding for all ointment preparations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 824 of 1136

824. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is asked to check whether phenytoin injection is compatible with dextrose 5% in water for IV infusion. The compatibility reference indicates that phenytoin precipitates in dextrose solutions. What alternative should the technician suggest to the pharmacist?

Dilute the phenytoin injection in normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) instead

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Add a buffering agent to the dextrose solution to prevent precipitation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increase the dextrose concentration to 10% to improve compatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Infuse the phenytoin directly without dilution to avoid incompatibility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 825 of 1136

825. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician reconstitutes a vial of ceftriaxone for IV use at 10:00 AM. The package insert states the reconstituted drug is stable for 24 hours at room temperature. At what time should the beyond-use time be set?

10:00 AM the following day

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10:00 PM the same day

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10:00 AM two days later

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Midnight of the current day

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 826 of 1136

826. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the medication storage area and finds a bottle of aspirin tablets that smells strongly of vinegar. What does this odor indicate?

The aspirin has undergone hydrolysis and degraded into acetic acid and salicylic acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The aspirin tablets have absorbed odors from nearby cleaning products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The bottle has been contaminated with an external vinegar-based solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The aspirin has reached its peak effectiveness and should be dispensed promptly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 827 of 1136

827. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A technician is compounding a sterile IV admixture in a classified ISO 5 cleanroom environment (Category 2 under USP 797). The preparation will be refrigerated. What is the maximum beyond-use date allowed?

4 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24 hours refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

14 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

45 days refrigerated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 828 of 1136

828. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy technician is asked to prepare a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) admixture. After adding all components, the technician observes a thin oily layer forming on the surface of the solution. What does this indicate?

The lipid emulsion has destabilized, indicating a broken emulsion that should not be infused

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Normal separation that will resolve once the bag is inverted several times

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excess dextrose concentration causing the lipid to float temporarily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proper mixing of lipid with amino acids, confirming the preparation is ready

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 829 of 1136

829. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician repackages unit-dose tablets from a manufacturer bottle with an expiration date 2 years away. According to USP standards, what beyond-use date should be assigned to the repackaged tablets?

One year from the date of repackaging or the manufacturer expiration date, whichever is earlier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The same expiration date as the manufacturer's original bottle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Six months from the date of repackaging in all situations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30 days from the date of repackaging per federal law

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 830 of 1136

830. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is reviewing stability data for a compounded oral suspension. The data shows that the preparation maintains 95% potency for 30 days at room temperature and 90% potency for 60 days when refrigerated. The pharmacist asks the technician to recommend the most appropriate beyond-use date and storage condition. Which recommendation is best?

Assign a 30-day BUD with storage at room temperature, as potency remains above 90% throughout

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Assign a 60-day BUD with refrigerated storage to maximize the usable period

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Assign a 14-day BUD regardless of storage conditions as a safety precaution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Assign a 90-day BUD since the degradation rate suggests adequate potency at that time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 831 of 1136

831. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy receives a report that a patient experienced an adverse reaction after receiving an IV antibiotic. The investigation reveals that the IV admixture was prepared 6 hours before administration but the drug’s stability in the diluent used is only 4 hours at room temperature. What is the root cause most likely contributing to this event?

The preparation exceeded its stability window, allowing degradation products to form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient had an allergy to the antibiotic that was not previously documented

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The diluent volume was incorrect, causing a concentration-related adverse effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The IV line was not primed before administration, causing an air embolism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 832 of 1136

832. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is evaluating two different IV medications that a patient is receiving simultaneously. Drug A has a pH of 3.0 and Drug B has a pH of 9.5. The nurse wants to administer both through the same Y-site. What is the most likely outcome if these drugs are combined at the Y-site?

Precipitate formation due to the large pH difference between the two solutions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enhanced therapeutic effect from the acid-base combination of the drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No interaction because Y-site contact time is too brief for any reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Color change in the IV tubing that is cosmetic and not clinically significant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 833 of 1136

833. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A community pharmacy compounds a large batch of a non-sterile oral solution containing Drug X. Three months after compounding, multiple patients report that the solution tastes different and appears darker than when they first received it. The pharmacy checks its records and finds the preparation was assigned a 180-day BUD. Which analysis best explains the situation?

The drug is undergoing chemical degradation over time, and the actual stability is shorter than 180 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patients are experiencing taste changes unrelated to the drug preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The flavoring agent used in compounding naturally darkens over time without affecting potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The storage containers are leaching chemicals into the solution and causing the color change

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 834 of 1136

834. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A hospital pharmacy prepares insulin drips in normal saline for the ICU. The pharmacy has been assigning a 24-hour BUD. A pharmacist reviews recent literature suggesting that insulin adsorbs to PVC IV bags and tubing, potentially reducing the delivered dose over time. The pharmacist asks the technician to help evaluate the impact. Which factor is most important to consider?

The extent of insulin adsorption to the container and tubing at the prescribed concentration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The total volume of normal saline used in the infusion bag preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The brand of insulin used, since all brands have identical adsorption profiles

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The number of ICU patients currently receiving insulin drips on each shift

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 835 of 1136

835. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is comparing two compounded sterile preparations. Preparation A was made in an ISO 5 primary engineering control within an ISO 7 buffer room (Category 2). Preparation B was made in an ISO 5 hood in a segregated compounding area (Category 1). Both are stored under refrigeration. Which statement about their beyond-use dating is correct?

Preparation A may receive a longer BUD than Preparation B due to the superior environmental controls

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both preparations receive the same BUD since they were compounded under ISO 5 conditions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Preparation B receives a longer BUD because segregated areas reduce contamination risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither preparation may be refrigerated because sterile products must be used immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 836 of 1136

836. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is auditing the IV room and discovers that a bag of premixed dopamine in dextrose 5% has a yellow discoloration. The bag was stored at room temperature and is still within the manufacturer’s expiration date. The package insert states that solutions darker than slightly yellow should not be used. What is the best analysis of this situation?

The discoloration suggests chemical degradation, and the bag should be discarded despite being within the expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The bag is safe to use because it has not passed the manufacturer expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The discoloration is normal for dopamine solutions and does not affect potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The bag should be refrigerated for 24 hours to see if the color returns to normal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 837 of 1136

837. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy is considering switching from glass vials to plastic containers for a compounded IV medication. The pharmacist asks the technician to identify the most important stability concern with this change. Which concern should be prioritized?

Potential drug adsorption to or leaching from the plastic container material

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The difference in weight between glass and plastic containers during shipping

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The visual appearance of the medication in a plastic versus glass container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The increased risk of microbial contamination from plastic container seals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 838 of 1136

838. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy uses an automated IV compounding device to prepare large batches of standard IV admixtures. The quality assurance program requires periodic stability verification. The technician reviews data showing that one batch of cefazolin in normal saline maintained 92% potency at 48 hours but dropped to 85% potency at 72 hours when refrigerated. The current BUD assigned is 72 hours refrigerated. What should the technician report?

The BUD should be shortened because the potency falls below 90% before the currently assigned 72-hour limit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The BUD is acceptable because 85% potency meets the minimum standard for IV medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The BUD should be extended to 96 hours since degradation has been gradual and predictable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The data is irrelevant because automated compounders eliminate the need for stability monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 839 of 1136

839. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is troubleshooting recurring precipitate formation in calcium gluconate and sodium bicarbonate IV admixtures prepared in the same batch. Previous batches had no issues. The technician reviews the workflow and finds that a new technician has been adding the calcium gluconate before diluting the sodium bicarbonate in the bag. What is the most likely explanation for the precipitate?

The order of mixing changed the local concentration, causing calcium carbonate precipitate to form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The new technician is using a different gauge needle that introduces particulate matter

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The room temperature has changed since the last batch was compounded

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The sodium bicarbonate lot has expired and is causing degradation products to precipitate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 840 of 1136

840. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician receives a new shipment of suppositories during summer months. The delivery truck was not refrigerated, and the outer packaging feels warm to the touch. The suppositories require storage at controlled room temperature. What should the technician do before placing them on the shelf?

Inspect the suppositories for signs of melting or deformation before stocking them

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the suppositories directly on the shelf since they only require room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Freeze the suppositories for 24 hours to restore their original shape

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the entire shipment to the wholesaler without opening the packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 841 of 1136

841. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing a batch of sodium bicarbonate 8.4% injection for the IV room. After drawing up the solution, the technician notices gas bubbles forming in several syringes over the next few minutes. What is the most likely cause of this observation?

Carbon dioxide is being released from the sodium bicarbonate solution due to a change in conditions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The syringes were contaminated with a cleaning agent that reacts with bicarbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Air was inadvertently drawn into the syringes during the filling process

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The sodium bicarbonate solution has expired and is forming degradation gases

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 842 of 1136

842. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician dispenses a prescription for tetracycline capsules. The patient mentions that they found an old bottle of tetracycline at home that has turned dark brown. The patient asks if the old medication is still safe to take. What should the technician communicate?

Advise the patient not to take the discolored medication and to dispose of it properly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient the color change is normal and the medication is still effective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suggest the patient take half the usual dose of the old medication to be safe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend storing the old medication in the refrigerator to reverse the degradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 843 of 1136

843. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which drug class is identified by the suffix -olol?

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 844 of 1136

844. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A medication ending in the suffix -pril belongs to which pharmacologic class?

ACE inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 845 of 1136

845. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which suffix identifies medications in the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor class?

-statin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-sartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-prazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-dipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 846 of 1136

846. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Benzodiazepines such as alprazolam, lorazepam, and diazepam are classified under which DEA controlled substance schedule?

Schedule IV (C-IV)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule II (C-II)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule III (C-III)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule V (C-V)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 847 of 1136

847. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which drug class is characterized by the suffix -sartan?

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 848 of 1136

848. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Opioid analgesics such as oxycodone, morphine, and hydromorphone are classified under which DEA schedule?

Schedule II (C-II)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule III (C-III)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule IV (C-IV)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule V (C-V)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 849 of 1136

849. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

The suffix -prazole identifies medications belonging to which drug class?

Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

H2 receptor antagonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antacids

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prokinetic agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 850 of 1136

850. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which suffix is associated with the fluoroquinolone antibiotic class?

-floxacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-mycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-cillin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-cycline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 851 of 1136

851. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Medications ending in -gliptin belong to which pharmacologic class?

DPP-4 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

GLP-1 receptor agonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SGLT2 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sulfonylureas

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 852 of 1136

852. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

The suffix -gliflozin identifies medications in which class used for type 2 diabetes?

SGLT2 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

DPP-4 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

GLP-1 receptor agonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thiazolidinediones

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 853 of 1136

853. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Amphetamine mixed salts (Adderall) and methylphenidate (Ritalin) are CNS stimulants classified under which DEA schedule?

Schedule II (C-II)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule III (C-III)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule IV (C-IV)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule V (C-V)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 854 of 1136

854. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which drug class does the suffix -dipine indicate?

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 855 of 1136

855. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient presents a new prescription for sumatriptan. Based on the drug suffix, which mechanism of action should the pharmacy technician associate with this medication?

Serotonin (5-HT1) receptor agonist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin reuptake inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dopamine receptor antagonist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 856 of 1136

856. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A prescriber writes for amoxicillin for a patient with a bacterial sinus infection. Based on the suffix -cillin, which drug class does this medication belong to?

Penicillin antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Macrolide antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalosporin antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 857 of 1136

857. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for azithromycin. The suffix -mycin indicates this medication belongs to which antibiotic class?

Macrolide antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aminoglycoside antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tetracycline antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 858 of 1136

858. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient asks the pharmacy technician why their doctor switched them from lisinopril to losartan. Both medications treat hypertension, but they belong to different classes. Which pair of drug classes is represented?

ACE inhibitor and angiotensin II receptor blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta-blocker and calcium channel blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blocker and ACE inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ARB and dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 859 of 1136

859. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician notices a prescription for semaglutide. Based on the suffix -glutide, which drug class does this medication belong to?

GLP-1 receptor agonists

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

DPP-4 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SGLT2 inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin analogs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 860 of 1136

860. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for pantoprazole. What is the primary mechanism of action for this drug class?

Irreversibly blocks the hydrogen-potassium ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Competitively blocks histamine H2 receptors on parietal cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neutralizes gastric acid through direct chemical reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Enhances gastric mucosal defense by increasing prostaglandin production

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 861 of 1136

861. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy receives a prescription for carvedilol. The technician knows this medication ends in -lol, similar to metoprolol. Which therapeutic use is most commonly associated with this drug class?

Management of hypertension and heart failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevention of thromboembolic events

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Management of type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 862 of 1136

862. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient has prescriptions for atorvastatin and rosuvastatin from two different providers. The pharmacy technician should recognize these as a potential therapeutic duplication because they both belong to which class?

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fibric acid derivatives (fibrates)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bile acid sequestrants (resins)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PCSK9 inhibitors (monoclonal antibodies)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 863 of 1136

863. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A physician prescribes empagliflozin for a patient with type 2 diabetes and heart failure. Which mechanism of action should the pharmacy technician associate with this SGLT2 inhibitor?

Inhibits sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the kidneys to increase urinary glucose excretion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stimulates pancreatic beta cells to increase insulin secretion directly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase-4 to increase incretin hormone levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors to improve insulin sensitivity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 864 of 1136

864. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient presents a prescription for adalimumab (Humira). The pharmacy technician should recognize this as which type of medication?

Biologic monoclonal antibody

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small molecule oral tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Synthetic hormone replacement

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Traditional chemotherapy agent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 865 of 1136

865. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is comparing metoprolol succinate and metoprolol tartrate. Although both are beta-blockers, which key difference should the technician recognize?

Metoprolol succinate is extended-release and dosed once daily, while metoprolol tartrate is immediate-release and dosed two to three times daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol succinate is selective for beta-2 receptors, while metoprolol tartrate is selective for beta-1 receptors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol succinate is available only as an injection, while metoprolol tartrate is available only as an oral tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol succinate is a controlled substance, while metoprolol tartrate is not a controlled substance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 866 of 1136

866. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician receives a new prescription for liraglutide. Which route of administration is appropriate for this GLP-1 receptor agonist?

Subcutaneous injection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral tablet taken once daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Intramuscular injection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Intravenous infusion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 867 of 1136

867. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for clonazepam. Which special handling requirement applies to this medication based on its drug classification?

It must be stored in a locked cabinet and documented in a controlled substance log as a Schedule IV drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It must be refrigerated between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius at all times

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It requires a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) enrollment for dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It must be dispensed with a FDA-required Medication Guide for all patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 868 of 1136

868. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A prescriber orders ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. The pharmacy technician should recognize that this fluoroquinolone works by which mechanism?

Inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Disrupting bacterial cell wall synthesis at the transpeptidase level

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Blocking bacterial protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Interfering with bacterial folic acid synthesis through dihydrofolate reductase inhibition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 869 of 1136

869. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a patient profile and sees prescriptions for amlodipine and nifedipine. Both medications end in -dipine. What concern should the technician raise?

Both are dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, representing a potential therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are ACE inhibitors and may cause excessive cough when taken together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are ARBs and increase the risk of hyperkalemia when combined

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are beta-blockers and may cause severe bradycardia when used concurrently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 870 of 1136

870. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient receives a new prescription for sitagliptin (Januvia) to add to their current metformin therapy. Which statement best describes how sitagliptin works?

It inhibits the DPP-4 enzyme, prolonging the action of incretin hormones to stimulate insulin release

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It directly stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin regardless of blood glucose levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It blocks glucose absorption in the small intestine to reduce postprandial blood sugar levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It activates PPAR-gamma receptors in adipose tissue to improve peripheral insulin sensitivity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 871 of 1136

871. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for a medication with the suffix -mab. Which characteristic best describes medications with this suffix?

They are monoclonal antibodies produced from living organisms and typically require special storage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They are chemically synthesized small molecules available as oral tablets for daily use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They are synthetic hormones used exclusively for endocrine replacement therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They are plant-derived compounds used primarily in traditional medicine formulations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 872 of 1136

872. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient’s medication profile includes lisinopril 20 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily. The pharmacy receives a new prescription for valsartan 160 mg daily. Which concern should the pharmacy technician identify?

Valsartan (ARB) and lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) both target the renin-angiotensin system, creating a therapeutic overlap

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valsartan (ARB) and amlodipine (CCB) are from the same drug class and represent a therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valsartan (ARB) and metoprolol (beta-blocker) share the same mechanism and should not be combined

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All four medications are from the same pharmacologic category and cannot be used together safely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 873 of 1136

873. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician reviews a patient profile showing metformin 1000 mg twice daily, empagliflozin 25 mg daily, and sitagliptin 100 mg daily. The prescriber now adds dulaglutide 1.5 mg weekly. How many distinct pharmacologic classes for diabetes are represented?

Four classes: biguanide, SGLT2 inhibitor, DPP-4 inhibitor, and GLP-1 receptor agonist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Three classes: biguanide, SGLT2 inhibitor, and incretin-based therapy combined as one class

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two classes: oral antidiabetic agents and injectable antidiabetic agents as separate categories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Five classes: biguanide, SGLT2 inhibitor, DPP-4 inhibitor, GLP-1 receptor agonist, and insulin analog

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 874 of 1136

874. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician receives three new prescriptions for a patient: alprazolam 0.5 mg, oxycodone 10 mg, and amphetamine/dextroamphetamine 20 mg. Which DEA schedule classifications apply to these medications, respectively?

Schedule IV, Schedule II, Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule II, Schedule II, Schedule IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule IV, Schedule III, Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule III, Schedule II, Schedule IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 875 of 1136

875. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient is transitioning from a brand-name biologic (adalimumab) to its biosimilar. Which statement accurately describes the difference between a biosimilar and a traditional generic drug?

A biosimilar is highly similar to the reference biologic with no clinically meaningful differences, while a generic is chemically identical to the reference small molecule drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A biosimilar is chemically identical to the reference biologic, while a generic may have minor structural differences from its reference product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A biosimilar can only be prescribed by specialists, while a generic can be prescribed by any licensed prescriber without restrictions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A biosimilar undergoes fewer regulatory requirements than a generic because biologics are simpler molecules to manufacture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 876 of 1136

876. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a hypertension patient’s medications: amlodipine 10 mg, lisinopril 40 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atenolol 50 mg. The technician must identify each drug class. Which combination is correct?

Calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor, thiazide diuretic, beta-blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ARB, ACE inhibitor, loop diuretic, beta-blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blocker, ARB, thiazide diuretic, alpha-blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, potassium-sparing diuretic, beta-blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 877 of 1136

877. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy receives prescriptions for three antibiotics for different patients: amoxicillin, azithromycin, and levofloxacin. A patient with a documented penicillin allergy needs treatment for a respiratory infection. Which of the following correctly identifies the drug that must be avoided and the reason?

Amoxicillin must be avoided because it is a penicillin antibiotic (suffix -cillin), and azithromycin or levofloxacin could be considered

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Azithromycin must be avoided because macrolides cross-react with penicillin allergies in most patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Levofloxacin must be avoided because fluoroquinolones share a beta-lactam ring with penicillin antibiotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three antibiotics must be avoided because they share similar chemical structures with penicillin compounds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 878 of 1136

878. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is preparing a patient medication list for a pharmacist review. The patient takes omeprazole, atorvastatin, metoprolol tartrate, and losartan. Which statement correctly matches all four medications to their drug classes?

Proton pump inhibitor, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, beta-blocker, angiotensin II receptor blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

H2 receptor antagonist, fibric acid derivative, calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitor, bile acid sequestrant, beta-blocker, ACE inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antacid, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, alpha-blocker, angiotensin II receptor blocker

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 879 of 1136

879. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient currently takes lisinopril 20 mg for hypertension and develops a persistent dry cough. The prescriber decides to switch to an ARB. The pharmacy technician should expect a new prescription for which medication?

Losartan, because ARBs (suffix -sartan) do not cause the bradykinin-mediated cough associated with ACE inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine, because calcium channel blockers are the recommended replacement for all ACE inhibitor side effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol, because beta-blockers are interchangeable with ACE inhibitors for blood pressure management

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrochlorothiazide, because diuretics are the first-line alternative when ACE inhibitors cause cough

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 880 of 1136

880. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is comparing two diabetes medications: canagliflozin and saxagliptin. Although both are oral medications for type 2 diabetes, they have different mechanisms and side effect profiles. Which comparison is accurate?

Canagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor) increases urinary glucose excretion and may cause urinary tract infections, while saxagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor) enhances incretin activity with a lower risk of hypoglycemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Canagliflozin (DPP-4 inhibitor) enhances incretin activity, while saxagliptin (SGLT2 inhibitor) increases urinary glucose excretion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications work by the same mechanism but canagliflozin is more potent, requiring less frequent dosing than saxagliptin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Canagliflozin (GLP-1 agonist) requires subcutaneous injection, while saxagliptin (SGLT2 inhibitor) is taken orally once daily

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 881 of 1136

881. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A pharmacy technician is reviewing controlled substance inventory and notices that tramadol, zolpidem, and carisoprodol are stored together. Which statement about their controlled substance classifications is correct?

All three are classified as Schedule IV controlled substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tramadol is Schedule II, while zolpidem and carisoprodol are Schedule IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tramadol and carisoprodol are Schedule IV, while zolpidem is Schedule V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three are classified as Schedule III controlled substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 882 of 1136

882. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which dosage form is designed to release medication slowly over an extended period and should not be crushed?

Extended-release tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediate-release tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chewable tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Orally disintegrating tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 883 of 1136

883. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What is the most common concentration of insulin used in the United States?

U-100 (100 units per mL)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-40 (40 units per mL)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-200 (200 units per mL)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-500 (500 units per mL)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 884 of 1136

884. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which abbreviation on a medication label indicates the product is a sustained-release formulation that should not be crushed?

SR

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IR

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ODT

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 885 of 1136

885. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are administered by which route?

Placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Swallowed whole with a full glass of water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Placed between the gum and cheek to absorb slowly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chewed thoroughly before swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 886 of 1136

886. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which dosage form is a semisolid preparation intended for application to the skin?

Topical ointment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ophthalmic solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 887 of 1136

887. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

What type of dosage form must be shaken well before administration to ensure uniform distribution of the drug?

Oral suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sublingual tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transdermal patch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 888 of 1136

888. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Insulin glargine is available as Toujeo, which has a concentration of U-300. How many units of insulin are contained in each milliliter?

300 units per mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

100 units per mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

200 units per mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

500 units per mL

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 889 of 1136

889. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which type of inhaler requires the patient to coordinate actuation with inhalation?

Metered-dose inhaler (MDI)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dry powder inhaler (DPI)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Soft mist inhaler (SMI)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nebulizer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 890 of 1136

890. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A suppository is a dosage form designed for insertion into which body cavities?

Rectum, vagina, or urethra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mouth, nose, or ear canal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Under the tongue or inside the cheek only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Applied to the skin surface or mucous membranes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 891 of 1136

891. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Ophthalmic preparations must meet which critical quality standard before they can be administered to the eye?

Sterility

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Flavoring for patient comfort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Viscosity matching to saliva

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Buffering to match gastric pH

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 892 of 1136

892. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Which abbreviation on a prescription indicates the medication should be administered in the right ear?

AD

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

AS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

AU

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

OD

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 893 of 1136

893. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is prescribed metoprolol for hypertension. The pharmacy has both metoprolol tartrate immediate-release tablets and metoprolol succinate extended-release tablets in stock. Which recommendation should the technician flag for the pharmacist?

The immediate-release metoprolol tartrate tablet may be crushed for administration, but the extended-release metoprolol succinate tablet must not be crushed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both formulations can be safely crushed and mixed with applesauce for the patient without concern

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither formulation can be crushed, and the pharmacist must contact the prescriber for a liquid alternative

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The extended-release tablet should be crushed for easier swallowing since it contains a lower total daily dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 894 of 1136

894. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription is received for amoxicillin 400 mg/5 mL oral suspension, 150 mL. The pharmacy technician must reconstitute the powder. Which vehicle is typically used to reconstitute oral antibiotic suspensions?

Purified water (distilled or filtered drinking water)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride solution)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sterile water for injection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bacteriostatic water with preservative

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 895 of 1136

895. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch 25 mcg/hr. The pharmacist counsels the patient on proper application. Which instruction is correct for transdermal patch use?

Apply to a flat, hairless area of intact skin and rotate application sites with each new patch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply the patch over a wound or broken skin to enhance absorption of the medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the patch on the same location each time to maintain consistent drug absorption levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cut the patch in half if a lower dose is needed to reduce the amount of medication delivered

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 896 of 1136

896. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescriber writes for lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide 20/12.5 mg. What do the two numbers in this combination product strength represent?

20 mg of lisinopril and 12.5 mg of hydrochlorothiazide per tablet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 tablets of lisinopril and 12.5 tablets of hydrochlorothiazide in the package

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 mg total dose split into 12.5 mg immediate-release and 7.5 mg extended-release portions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A 20-day supply with 12.5 mg taken each day throughout the treatment period

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 897 of 1136

897. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pediatric patient weighing 15 kg needs amoxicillin for an ear infection. The physician prescribes amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension. Why is a liquid formulation preferred over tablets for this patient?

Young children cannot reliably swallow tablets, and liquid formulations allow weight-based dose adjustments

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liquid formulations are always more potent than tablet formulations for pediatric infections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tablets are not manufactured in pediatric strengths and are only available for adult patients

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liquid formulations bypass the gastrointestinal tract and are absorbed through the oral mucosa

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 898 of 1136

898. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient asks the pharmacy technician about the difference between their fluticasone nasal spray and their fluticasone inhaler. Which response is most accurate?

The nasal spray delivers medication to the nasal passages for allergy symptoms, while the inhaler delivers medication to the lungs for asthma or COPD

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both products deliver the same dose to the same site, but the nasal spray is a generic version of the inhaler

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The nasal spray contains a higher concentration of fluticasone because nasal absorption is less efficient than pulmonary absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The inhaler is for allergies and the nasal spray is for asthma, as sprays penetrate deeper into the respiratory tract

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 899 of 1136

899. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is receiving medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. The order is for omeprazole 20 mg. Which formulation would be most appropriate for administration through the feeding tube?

Omeprazole oral suspension packet mixed with water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole delayed-release capsule pushed through the tube intact

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole extended-release tablet crushed and flushed through the tube

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole intravenous solution administered through the feeding tube

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 900 of 1136

900. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient using an albuterol metered-dose inhaler (MDI) reports that the medication does not seem to be working well. Which common technique error could reduce the effectiveness of the MDI?

Failing to shake the inhaler before each use and not coordinating actuation with inhalation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Holding the breath for 10 seconds after inhalation to allow drug deposition in the lungs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Using a spacer device between the MDI mouthpiece and the mouth during actuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Waiting 1 minute between puffs when multiple inhalations are prescribed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 901 of 1136

901. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Humulin R U-500 insulin. How does this concentration compare to standard U-100 insulin?

U-500 contains 500 units per mL, which is five times more concentrated than U-100

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-500 contains 500 units per vial, which provides five times more total volume than U-100

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-500 is a diluted form containing 50 units per mL for patients who need smaller doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

U-500 and U-100 have the same concentration but differ in the total number of vials dispensed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 902 of 1136

902. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A prescription reads: “nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL PRN chest pain.” What does the SL route abbreviation tell the pharmacy technician about how this medication should be taken?

The tablet should be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve without swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablet should be swallowed whole with a sip of lukewarm water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablet should be placed between the cheek and gum for slow absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The tablet should be dissolved in a small amount of water before drinking

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 903 of 1136

903. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed buccal testosterone for hormone replacement. How should this medication be administered?

Placed between the upper gum and cheek, where it adheres and releases medication gradually

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve completely before swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Swallowed whole with food to reduce gastrointestinal irritation from the medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Applied to the skin of the inner arm and covered with an adhesive bandage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 904 of 1136

904. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is reconstituting azithromycin powder for oral suspension 200 mg/5 mL. After adding the required amount of water, what instruction should appear on the label?

Shake well before each use and store at room temperature; discard after 10 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerate after reconstitution and use within 24 hours of preparation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in the freezer and thaw before each dose for optimal stability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No special storage is required as the reconstituted product is stable indefinitely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 905 of 1136

905. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is prescribed insulin lispro (Humalog) U-200 KwikPen. How does this product differ from the standard insulin lispro U-100 formulation?

The U-200 pen delivers twice the concentration per mL but the pen dial adjusts so the patient selects the same unit dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The U-200 pen requires the patient to inject half the number of units compared to U-100 for the same dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The U-200 formulation is a different type of insulin that works for a longer duration than the U-100 version

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The U-200 pen can only be used with special U-200 syringes and cannot be dosed using the pen dial

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 906 of 1136

906. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient with an acute migraine uses a sumatriptan nasal spray instead of the oral tablet form. Which advantage does the nasal spray offer in this situation?

Faster absorption through the nasal mucosa, which is beneficial when nausea and vomiting limit oral intake

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Higher total bioavailability compared to the oral tablet, resulting in stronger pain relief overall

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Longer duration of action than the oral tablet, eliminating the need for a second dose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower cost per dose compared to the oral tablet form at most retail pharmacies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 907 of 1136

907. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

An ophthalmic solution and an otic solution both contain the same active ingredient, ciprofloxacin. Can the ophthalmic formulation be used in the ear?

Yes, ophthalmic solutions may be used in the ear because they meet sterility requirements, but otic solutions should not be used in the eye

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, ophthalmic and otic solutions are never interchangeable regardless of the active ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, both formulations are interchangeable and can be used in either the eye or the ear safely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, ophthalmic solutions contain preservatives that are toxic to the ear canal tissue

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 908 of 1136

908. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is reviewing available strengths for lisinopril tablets. Which set of strengths accurately represents commonly available lisinopril tablet options?

2.5 mg, 5 mg, 10 mg, 20 mg, 30 mg, and 40 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 mg, 3 mg, 7 mg, 15 mg, 25 mg, and 50 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 mg, 25 mg, 50 mg, 100 mg, 150 mg, and 200 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

0.5 mg, 1 mg, 2 mg, 4 mg, 8 mg, and 16 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 909 of 1136

909. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient using a dry powder inhaler (DPI) for fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair Diskus) asks about proper technique. Which instruction is specific to DPI use?

Inhale quickly and deeply through the mouthpiece without shaking the device before use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shake the device vigorously for 5 seconds and inhale slowly through the mouthpiece

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Exhale into the mouthpiece before inhaling to activate the dose-release mechanism

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Attach a spacer to the mouthpiece to improve drug delivery to the lower airways

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 910 of 1136

910. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A nursing facility patient receives medications through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The medication orders include diltiazem ER 120 mg daily, amlodipine 5 mg daily, and metformin 500 mg twice daily (immediate-release). Which medication(s) can be crushed for tube administration?

Amlodipine and metformin immediate-release can be crushed, but diltiazem ER must not be crushed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications can be safely crushed and administered through the PEG tube

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only metformin can be crushed because the other two are cardiovascular medications with special coatings

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

None of the three medications can be crushed, and the prescriber must order liquid formulations for all

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 911 of 1136

911. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a complex patient medication list that includes: oxycodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg tablets, amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg tablets, and amlodipine/benazepril 5/20 mg capsules. Which statement correctly interprets all three combination product strengths?

Each product lists the individual strengths of both active ingredients per dosage unit in the order they appear in the product name

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The first number always represents the controlled substance component and the second number represents the non-controlled component

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The numbers represent the ratio of the two ingredients rather than the actual milligram amounts per dosage unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The first number is the total daily dose and the second number is the amount per individual dosage unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 912 of 1136

912. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A hospital pharmacy technician receives orders for three patients who all need insulin. Patient A requires insulin glargine U-100, Patient B requires insulin glargine U-300 (Toujeo), and Patient C requires regular insulin U-500 (Humulin R U-500). Which safety concern should the technician prioritize?

Verifying the correct concentration for each patient because using the wrong insulin concentration could result in a significant dosing error

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ensuring all three patients receive U-100 syringes since all insulin products use the same standard syringe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Confirming that all three products can be mixed in the same syringe for patients requiring multiple insulin types

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Checking that all three concentrations are stored at the same temperature since insulin storage is uniform across products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 913 of 1136

913. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient is being discharged from the hospital with prescriptions for: morphine sulfate ER 30 mg every 12 hours, morphine sulfate IR 15 mg every 4 hours PRN for breakthrough pain, and docusate 100 mg twice daily. The pharmacy technician notices the patient also has a note about difficulty swallowing large tablets. Which dispensing concern requires pharmacist consultation?

The morphine ER tablet cannot be crushed, so an alternative extended-release formulation or route must be considered for the patient with swallowing difficulty

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The morphine IR tablet must be dispensed as a suppository because all immediate-release opioids cannot be swallowed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The docusate capsule is the primary concern because stool softeners are the most difficult medications to swallow

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications need to be converted to intravenous formulations because no oral options exist for patients with dysphagia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 914 of 1136

914. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is preparing an order for a patient who uses both albuterol MDI and ipratropium MDI. The patient reports inconsistent symptom relief and mentions using both inhalers without a spacer. The technician should recognize which set of issues?

Both MDIs require proper shake-and-breathe coordination; adding a spacer device to each could improve drug delivery and symptom control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only the albuterol MDI requires a spacer because rescue inhalers need more precise delivery than maintenance inhalers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither MDI benefits from spacer use because spacers are only designed for dry powder inhaler devices

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient should combine both medications into one MDI administration to simplify the dosing technique

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 915 of 1136

915. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician reviews a prescription for a patient transitioning from a fentanyl 75 mcg/hr transdermal patch (changed every 72 hours) to oral oxycodone for pain management. The old patch is being removed. Which important consideration about the transdermal formulation should the technician be aware of?

Fentanyl continues to be absorbed from the skin depot for up to 24 hours after patch removal, requiring careful timing of the new oral opioid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fentanyl absorption stops immediately upon patch removal, so the oral opioid should be started right away

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The used fentanyl patch contains no residual medication and can be disposed of in regular pharmacy waste

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transdermal fentanyl is fully absorbed within the first 12 hours, so the remaining 60 hours provide no therapeutic effect

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 916 of 1136

916. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is comparing reconstitution instructions for two antibiotic suspensions: amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL (150 mL bottle) and cephalexin 250 mg/5 mL (100 mL bottle). After reconstitution, which storage and beyond-use date difference should the technician recognize?

Reconstituted amoxicillin should be refrigerated with a 14-day beyond-use date, while reconstituted cephalexin should be refrigerated with a 14-day beyond-use date as well; the technician should verify the specific product labeling for each

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both reconstituted suspensions can be stored at room temperature indefinitely until the bottle is completely empty

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin suspension requires freezing, while cephalexin suspension must be kept at room temperature for stability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither suspension requires refrigeration because antibiotic powders are inherently stable once reconstituted with water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 917 of 1136

917. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is reviewing medication orders for a patient who needs both a corticosteroid inhaler and a bronchodilator inhaler. The orders include fluticasone HFA (corticosteroid) and albuterol HFA (bronchodilator). If the patient uses both at the same time, which administration sequence is recommended?

Use the albuterol bronchodilator first to open the airways, then use the fluticasone corticosteroid for better drug deposition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Use the fluticasone corticosteroid first to reduce inflammation, then follow with albuterol for immediate relief

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alternate puffs between the two inhalers, taking one puff of each in sequence until all doses are complete

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mix both medications by actuating them into the same spacer device simultaneously for combined therapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 918 of 1136

918. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A long-term care facility patient has orders for oxybutynin ER 10 mg daily, potassium chloride ER 20 mEq daily, and prednisone 10 mg daily. The patient now requires a feeding tube. Which medication adjustment requires the most attention from the pharmacy team?

Both oxybutynin ER and potassium chloride ER are extended-release and cannot be crushed; alternatives for tube administration must be found for both

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only prednisone requires adjustment because corticosteroids are not compatible with feeding tube administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only potassium chloride ER needs to be changed because it is the only extended-release product among the three

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications can be crushed and administered through the feeding tube without any formulation changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 919 of 1136

919. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician receives prescriptions for three different patients, each requiring a topical corticosteroid. Patient A needs treatment for a weeping, oozing skin lesion; Patient B needs a barrier for dry, cracked skin on the hands; and Patient C needs treatment for a moist skin fold area. Which dosage form pairing is most appropriate for each patient?

Patient A: cream (water-washable, suitable for weeping lesions); Patient B: ointment (occlusive, moisturizing for dry skin); Patient C: cream or lotion (non-occlusive for moist areas)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patient A: ointment (occlusive for weeping areas); Patient B: gel (cooling for dry skin); Patient C: ointment (thick for skin fold protection)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patient A: paste (absorbent for all wet wounds); Patient B: lotion (light for dry areas); Patient C: gel (drying for moist folds)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patient A: gel (transparent for easy monitoring); Patient B: cream (light for hand application); Patient C: paste (protective for fold areas)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 920 of 1136

920. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A pharmacy technician is reviewing a discharge medication list that includes: venlafaxine XR 150 mg capsules, oxycodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg tablets, and clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hr transdermal patches. The patient reports that they have trouble swallowing capsules and large tablets. Which analysis of the formulation challenges is correct?

Venlafaxine XR capsules can be opened and the contents sprinkled on applesauce without crushing the beads; oxycodone/acetaminophen IR tablets can be crushed; clonidine patches require no swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications must be converted to liquid formulations because none of the current dosage forms can be modified for swallowing difficulty

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only the clonidine patch is appropriate; both the venlafaxine XR capsule and oxycodone/acetaminophen tablet must be switched to injectable forms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Venlafaxine XR capsules should be crushed to powder for mixing with water, and the clonidine patch should be cut in half for easier application

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 921 of 1136

921. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: History Taking

You respond to a 68-year-old female complaining of chest discomfort. She states she takes “a small white pill every morning for her heart.” What is the most appropriate next question to clarify this specific medication?

"Do you know the name of the medication and the dose you take?"

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

"Have you taken any aspirin today?"

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

"When was your last dose of nitroglycerin?"

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

"Can you show me where the pharmacy label is on the bottle?"

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 922 of 1136

922. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: History Taking

You are assessing a 45-year-old male who was found unresponsive by his coworker. The patient is now responsive but confused. Who is the best source of information about the events that led to this episode?

The coworker who found the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient, since he is now responsive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The 911 dispatcher who received the call

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's employer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 923 of 1136

923. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which pharmacy system is designed to automatically detect therapeutic duplications at the point of dispensing?

Drug utilization review (DUR)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Automated dispensing cabinet (ADC)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Computerized provider order entry (CPOE)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 924 of 1136

924. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which pair of medications would be classified as a therapeutic duplication?

Omeprazole and pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole and famotidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pantoprazole and sucralfate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole and metoclopramide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 925 of 1136

925. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What is the primary difference between therapeutic duplication and a drug interaction?

Therapeutic duplication involves two drugs in the same class, while a drug interaction involves effects between drugs of different classes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic duplication always causes harm, while drug interactions may be beneficial

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic duplication only occurs with prescription drugs, while drug interactions can involve OTC products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic duplication requires pharmacist approval, while drug interactions require prescriber approval

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 926 of 1136

926. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What action should a pharmacy technician take when a DUR alert flags a therapeutic duplication?

Notify the pharmacist for clinical review before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber directly to request a medication change

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Override the alert and continue processing the prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Counsel the patient about the risks of taking both medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 927 of 1136

927. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Concurrent use of an ACE inhibitor and an ARB is an example of which type of prescribing concern?

Therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pharmacokinetic drug interaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contraindicated drug combination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Therapeutic substitution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 928 of 1136

928. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which of the following is a common reason insurance companies reject a prescription claim?

Therapeutic duplication with an existing medication on the patient profile

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication was prescribed by a specialist rather than a primary care physician

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient has not met their annual deductible for the current year

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescription was written using the brand name instead of the generic name

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 929 of 1136

929. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which pair of medications represents a therapeutic duplication involving statin drugs?

Atorvastatin and rosuvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin and ezetimibe

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rosuvastatin and fenofibrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simvastatin and niacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 930 of 1136

930. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

What does the term clinical equivalence mean in the context of medications?

Two medications produce the same therapeutic outcome in a patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two medications have the same chemical structure and molecular weight

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two medications are manufactured by the same pharmaceutical company

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two medications are available in the same dosage forms and strengths

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 931 of 1136

931. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient presents a new prescription for sertraline 50 mg daily. The patient profile shows an active prescription for fluoxetine 20 mg daily. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Alert the pharmacist to the potential therapeutic duplication before processing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the sertraline and discontinue the fluoxetine in the system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Call the prescriber to verify whether both medications are intended

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inform the patient that two antidepressants cannot be taken together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 932 of 1136

932. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician processes a prescription for ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily. The patient mentions taking OTC Advil regularly for headaches. What type of concern does this represent?

Therapeutic duplication from combined prescription and OTC use of the same drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A drug interaction between two chemically different anti-inflammatory agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An adverse drug reaction requiring immediate medical attention from the patient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A dosage form conflict requiring a change from oral to topical administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 933 of 1136

933. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient is picking up Percocet (oxycodone/acetaminophen). The technician notices an active prescription for Tylenol 500 mg on the profile. Which ingredient creates a duplication concern?

Acetaminophen, which is present in both Percocet and Tylenol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxycodone, which is present in both Percocet and Tylenol formulations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin, which is a hidden ingredient in both combination products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen, which interacts with the oxycodone component of Percocet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 934 of 1136

934. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

While processing a new prescription for losartan 50 mg, the DUR system generates a therapeutic duplication alert because the patient takes lisinopril 10 mg. What is the basis for this alert?

Both medications act on the renin-angiotensin system to lower blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are potassium-sparing diuretics that affect electrolyte balance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are beta-blockers that reduce heart rate and cardiac output

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are calcium channel blockers that relax vascular smooth muscle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 935 of 1136

935. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient has a new prescription for naproxen 500 mg twice daily. Their profile shows active meloxicam 15 mg daily. The insurance company rejects the claim. What is the most likely rejection reason?

Therapeutic duplication because both medications are NSAIDs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prior authorization is required for naproxen at this dosage strength

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The quantity prescribed exceeds the maximum allowed by the plan formulary

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient has reached their annual prescription benefit spending limit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 936 of 1136

936. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A technician enters a prescription for NyQuil Cold and Flu (which contains acetaminophen) for a patient who also takes hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg. What should the technician recognize?

The acetaminophen in both products creates a duplication that could exceed safe daily limits

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The dextromethorphan in NyQuil will interact with the hydrocodone component

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The antihistamine in NyQuil will reduce the effectiveness of the hydrocodone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pseudoephedrine in NyQuil is contraindicated with opioid pain medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 937 of 1136

937. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician receives a new prescription for escitalopram 10 mg for a patient currently taking citalopram 20 mg. What type of issue is being identified?

Therapeutic duplication of two SSRI antidepressants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A dosage adjustment requiring prescriber verification and approval

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A generic substitution that needs patient consent before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A controlled substance conflict requiring DEA number verification

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 938 of 1136

938. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient brings prescriptions from two different doctors: lansoprazole 30 mg daily and esomeprazole 40 mg daily. How should the technician handle this?

Flag the therapeutic duplication for the pharmacist before filling either prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fill both prescriptions since they were written by different prescribers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fill only the prescription with the higher dose and return the other one

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact both prescribers to inform them of the duplicate prescriptions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 939 of 1136

939. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

During prescription entry, the software generates a DUR alert for benzodiazepine duplication. The new prescription is for lorazepam, and the patient currently takes clonazepam. What should the technician do?

Refer the alert to the pharmacist for clinical evaluation before continuing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Override the alert because both medications may be prescribed intentionally

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the clonazepam in the system and process the new lorazepam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Call the prescriber to ask if the patient should take both benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 940 of 1136

940. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient profile shows Vicodin (hydrocodone/acetaminophen), Tylenol PM (acetaminophen/diphenhydramine), and Mucinex Fast-Max (which contains acetaminophen). How many products contain a duplicated ingredient?

All three products contain acetaminophen as an active ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only two of the three products contain acetaminophen as an ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only Vicodin and Tylenol PM contain the duplicated active ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only Tylenol PM and Mucinex Fast-Max contain the duplicated ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 941 of 1136

941. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

An insurance claim is rejected for therapeutic duplication. The patient has active pravastatin and a new prescription for simvastatin. What should the technician do?

Inform the pharmacist of the rejection and the existing pravastatin on the profile

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process an override code to bypass the insurance rejection automatically

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Switch the new prescription to a non-statin cholesterol medication in the system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient to stop taking the pravastatin before starting the simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 942 of 1136

942. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A technician processing Excedrin Migraine (acetaminophen/aspirin/caffeine) notices the patient also takes Norco (hydrocodone/acetaminophen). Which action is most appropriate?

Alert the pharmacist about the acetaminophen duplication in both products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Process the prescription because OTC products do not require DUR screening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient take ibuprofen instead without consulting the pharmacist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refuse to sell the Excedrin because it contains a controlled substance ingredient

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 943 of 1136

943. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy receives prescriptions for amlodipine 5 mg and nifedipine ER 30 mg for the same patient. The DUR flags this combination. Why?

Both are dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, resulting in therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are ACE inhibitors that block angiotensin-converting enzyme activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are beta-blockers that can cause excessive reduction in heart rate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are thiazide diuretics that may cause dangerous electrolyte imbalances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 944 of 1136

944. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient taking celecoxib 200 mg daily asks the technician if it is safe to also take OTC naproxen for additional pain relief. How should the technician respond?

Advise the patient to speak with the pharmacist before combining these medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient it is safe because celecoxib and naproxen work differently

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recommend the patient alternate days between celecoxib and naproxen use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inform the patient that OTC medications never interact with prescription drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 945 of 1136

945. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient on warfarin therapy presents an OTC purchase of aspirin 325 mg along with a prescription refill. The patient also takes prescription aspirin 81 mg daily. Which concern should be flagged?

Therapeutic duplication of aspirin at two different strengths from different sources

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A drug interaction between warfarin and the 325 mg aspirin product only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An insurance formulary conflict between OTC and prescription aspirin products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A controlled substance monitoring requirement for the aspirin OTC purchase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 946 of 1136

946. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient profile includes lisinopril 20 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, and valsartan 160 mg daily. Which combination represents a therapeutic duplication?

Lisinopril and valsartan, because both target the renin-angiotensin system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide, because both lower blood pressure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide, because both affect kidney function

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine and valsartan, because both are available as combination products

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 947 of 1136

947. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient takes Norco (hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325), Fioricet (butalbital/acetaminophen/caffeine), and OTC Tylenol Extra Strength 500 mg. At maximum doses of all three, which risk is most concerning?

Exceeding the maximum daily acetaminophen limit, leading to potential hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Developing tolerance to hydrocodone, requiring progressively higher opioid doses

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Experiencing excessive caffeine intake from the Fioricet and other dietary sources

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Developing physical dependence on the butalbital component of the Fioricet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 948 of 1136

948. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient profile shows duloxetine 60 mg daily and venlafaxine XR 150 mg daily. The pharmacy software does not generate a DUR alert. Should the technician still flag this for the pharmacist?

Yes, because both are SNRIs and this is a therapeutic duplication the software may have missed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because the absence of a DUR alert confirms the combination is clinically appropriate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because duloxetine and venlafaxine belong to different antidepressant drug classes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only because the prescriber may have forgotten to discontinue the venlafaxine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 949 of 1136

949. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient takes metoprolol succinate ER 50 mg daily and atenolol 25 mg daily, both from the same cardiologist. The DUR flags therapeutic duplication. Which factor should the pharmacist consider first?

Whether the prescriber intended to transition the patient from one beta-blocker to another

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether both prescriptions were filled at the same pharmacy location previously

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether the patient has a documented allergy to either beta-blocker medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Whether the insurance plan covers both medications under the current formulary tier

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 950 of 1136

950. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient profile includes fluticasone nasal spray, montelukast 10 mg daily, cetirizine 10 mg daily, and loratadine 10 mg daily. Which medications represent a therapeutic duplication?

Cetirizine and loratadine, because both are second-generation antihistamines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone and montelukast, because both are used for allergy symptom relief

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Montelukast and cetirizine, because both block inflammatory allergy mediators

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone and loratadine, because both are available without a prescription

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 951 of 1136

951. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient takes trazodone 50 mg at bedtime for insomnia and paroxetine 20 mg daily for anxiety. A technician considers whether this is a therapeutic duplication. Which reasoning is correct?

This is likely not a duplication because trazodone at low doses is used for insomnia, not as an antidepressant

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a duplication because both drugs affect serotonin reuptake pathways equally

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is a duplication because trazodone and paroxetine are both classified as SSRIs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

This is not a duplication because trazodone is classified as a benzodiazepine for insomnia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 952 of 1136

952. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient has clopidogrel 75 mg daily from a cardiologist and aspirin 81 mg daily from a primary care provider. The DUR flags therapeutic duplication. How should this alert be interpreted?

Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is accepted clinical practice after certain cardiac events

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The DUR alert should always be overridden because aspirin is an OTC medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination must be rejected because two antiplatelet agents are never used together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The alert indicates the patient needs to switch from clopidogrel to aspirin monotherapy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 953 of 1136

953. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient takes Januvia (sitagliptin) 100 mg daily and receives a new prescription for Victoza (liraglutide). A technician flags this as therapeutic duplication since both are incretin-based. Is this classification correct?

Not necessarily; although both are incretin-based, they work by different mechanisms and may be used together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because all diabetes medications from the same therapeutic category are duplications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, because injectable and oral diabetes medications should never be combined together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No, because a duplication can only occur between two medications in the same dosage form

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 954 of 1136

954. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient profile includes Xarelto (rivaroxaban) 20 mg daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and a new prescription for Eliquis (apixaban) 5 mg twice daily. Which pair is the most critical therapeutic duplication?

Rivaroxaban and apixaban, because both are direct oral anticoagulants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin and rivaroxaban, because both affect the blood clotting pathway

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin and apixaban, because aspirin counteracts the effect of anticoagulants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications equally, because they all affect hemostasis in some way

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 955 of 1136

955. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient has metformin 1000 mg twice daily, glipizide 10 mg twice daily, and a new prescription for glyburide 5 mg daily. The DUR alerts for therapeutic duplication. Which analysis is correct?

Glipizide and glyburide are both sulfonylureas, creating a true therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin and glipizide are the duplication because they both lower blood glucose

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications are duplications because they treat the same disease condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin and glyburide are the duplication because they are both first-line agents

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 956 of 1136

956. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Sample Opqrst

A 55-year-old male says his chest pain feels like “an elephant sitting on my chest.” Using OPQRST, which component is the patient describing with this phrase?

Quality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Onset

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Provocation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 957 of 1136

957. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Sample Opqrst

You are evaluating a 30-year-old female with abdominal pain. She states the pain started gradually about four hours ago and has been getting worse. She says the pain is in her lower right side and does not radiate anywhere. Which OPQRST components have you gathered from this information?

Onset, time, and region/radiation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Quality, severity, and time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Provocation, onset, and severity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Region, quality, and provocation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 958 of 1136

958. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Sample Opqrst

You are assessing a 62-year-old female who reports intermittent chest tightness for the past two days. Today the tightness became constant and she also feels short of breath. She says the discomfort worsens when she walks and improves when she sits still. She rates the discomfort as 5/10. Which OPQRST finding is most concerning and should prompt rapid transport?

The change from intermittent to constant symptoms over two days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The 5/10 severity rating, indicating moderate discomfort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The relief of symptoms with rest

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The association of symptoms with physical exertion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 959 of 1136

959. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Vital Signs

What is the normal resting respiratory rate range for an adult patient?

12 to 20 breaths per minute

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8 to 12 breaths per minute

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 to 30 breaths per minute

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

16 to 32 breaths per minute

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 960 of 1136

960. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Vital Signs

You are transporting a 50-year-old male with chest pain. His initial vital signs were BP 148/92, pulse 88, respirations 18, and SpO2 97%. After administering aspirin per protocol, you reassess and find BP 136/84, pulse 82, respirations 16, and SpO2 98%. How should you interpret this trend?

The vital signs are trending toward normal, suggesting the patient may be stabilizing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The drop in blood pressure indicates worsening shock requiring immediate intervention

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The change in pulse indicates a cardiac arrhythmia is developing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The vital signs are unchanged and should be disregarded

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 961 of 1136

961. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Vital Signs

When assessing a patient’s pulse, which characteristics should the EMT evaluate?

Rate, rhythm, and quality

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rate, depth, and effort

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rate, volume, and location

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rate, pitch, and duration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 962 of 1136

962. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Physical Exam

During a secondary assessment of a responsive medical patient complaining of difficulty breathing, which type of physical exam is most appropriate?

A focused exam of the chest, including auscultation of lung sounds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A complete head-to-toe rapid trauma assessment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An exam limited to obtaining vital signs only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A detailed neurological exam including cranial nerve testing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 963 of 1136

963. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Reassessment

How often should an EMT reassess vital signs on a stable patient during transport?

Every 15 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 5 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 30 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only upon arrival at the hospital

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 964 of 1136

964. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Reassessment

You are transporting a 40-year-old female with an allergic reaction. You administered epinephrine via auto-injector five minutes ago. During reassessment, you note her wheezing has improved, but her blood pressure has dropped from 118/76 to 90/58 mmHg and her heart rate increased from 96 to 120. What is the most appropriate action?

Position the patient supine, maintain the airway, and prepare for possible repeat epinephrine administration per protocol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Administer a second epinephrine auto-injector immediately without further assessment

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue monitoring because the wheezing has improved

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Slow the transport because the primary symptom is resolving

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 965 of 1136

965. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Reassessment

During transport, you reassess an unresponsive trauma patient and discover that the patient’s breathing has become shallow and irregular at 8 breaths per minute, down from 16 breaths per minute at the initial assessment. What is the most appropriate intervention?

Begin assisting ventilations with a bag-valve mask

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increase the oxygen flow rate via nasal cannula

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reposition the patient and reassess in five minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 966 of 1136

966. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Reassessment

You are transporting a patient with a femur fracture that you splinted on scene. During reassessment, you check the splinted extremity and find that the foot is now pale and cool with no palpable pedal pulse, although a pulse was present before splinting. What should you do?

Loosen the splint, reassess distal circulation, and adjust as needed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leave the splint in place because removing it may worsen the fracture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site to restore circulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Document the finding and continue transport without changes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 967 of 1136

967. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Monitoring Devices

You place a pulse oximeter on a patient who was rescued from a house fire. The device reads 99%. The patient is confused and has soot around the nose and mouth. How should you interpret this reading?

The reading may be falsely elevated due to carbon monoxide binding to hemoglobin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient has adequate oxygenation and does not require supplemental oxygen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The reading confirms that the patient did not inhale significant smoke

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The device is malfunctioning and should be replaced immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 968 of 1136

968. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Monitoring Devices

You are assessing a patient in a cold environment. You attempt to obtain a pulse oximetry reading from the patient’s finger, but the device is unable to detect a signal. What is the most likely cause?

Poor peripheral perfusion due to vasoconstriction from the cold

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The device battery is depleted

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's hemoglobin level is too high for accurate reading

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient's blood pressure is elevated from the cold exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 969 of 1136

969. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Monitoring Devices

You are treating a patient with difficulty breathing. The pulse oximeter reads 88% on room air. You apply a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After five minutes, the SpO2 has only increased to 90%. The patient remains in respiratory distress with accessory muscle use and speaks in two-word sentences. How should you interpret this situation?

The patient is not responding adequately to oxygen therapy and may need assisted ventilations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The 2% improvement confirms the oxygen therapy is working and should be continued as is

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pulse oximeter is likely inaccurate and should be removed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The nonrebreather mask is delivering too much oxygen and should be switched to a nasal cannula

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 970 of 1136

970. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Monitoring Devices

Below what SpO2 reading should an EMT consider a patient to be hypoxic and in need of supplemental oxygen?

94%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

98%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

90%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

85%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 971 of 1136

971. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s insurance formulary covers only generic medications. The prescription is written for Phenergan 25 mg suppositories. What should the technician enter into the system?

Promethazine 25 mg suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prochlorperazine 25 mg suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoclopramide 25 mg suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ondansetron 25 mg suppositories

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 972 of 1136

972. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy receives a prescription for Suboxone film. The technician notices this medication requires special documentation. What is the generic name for Suboxone?

Buprenorphine-naloxone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naltrexone-buprenorphine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methadone-naloxone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naloxone-naltrexone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 973 of 1136

973. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient calls asking about a medication for their child’s seizures. They say the bottle reads ‘levetiracetam.’ Which brand name should the technician reference when looking up product information?

Keppra

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lamictal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Depakote

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trileptal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 974 of 1136

974. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient has a prescription for Fosamax 70 mg weekly. They ask if there is a generic version available. What is the generic name the technician should look up?

Alendronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Risedronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibandronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Raloxifene

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 975 of 1136

975. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient receives a new prescription for Entresto. The technician needs to identify the active ingredients. What is the generic name for Entresto?

Sacubitril-valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Losartan-hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine-valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Olmesartan-amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 976 of 1136

976. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy receives a prescription for Jardiance 25 mg daily. The technician needs to select the correct product. What is the generic name for Jardiance?

Empagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Canagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dapagliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ertugliflozin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 977 of 1136

977. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient asks why their Mounjaro injection costs more than their previous diabetes medication. The technician should recognize that Mounjaro is the brand name for which generic?

Tirzepatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dulaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liraglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 978 of 1136

978. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber writes for Rybelsus 14 mg daily. The technician should recognize this is an oral formulation of which medication?

Semaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tirzepatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dulaglutide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Exenatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 979 of 1136

979. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A technician is processing a prescription for Provera 10 mg. The insurance requires the generic name for claim submission. Which generic should be entered?

Medroxyprogesterone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Conjugated estrogens

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Norethindrone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progesterone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 980 of 1136

980. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient brings in a prescription for Prolia. The technician should recognize this is a subcutaneous injection of which medication?

Denosumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alendronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zoledronic acid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Teriparatide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 981 of 1136

981. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s medication list includes Keppra, Flexeril, and Fosamax. Which set of generic names correctly matches all three brand-name medications?

Levetiracetam, cyclobenzaprine, alendronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lamotrigine, tizanidine, risedronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Topiramate, baclofen, ibandronate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine, methocarbamol, denosumab

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 982 of 1136

982. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A technician is reconciling a patient’s medication list. The patient takes Depakote, Phenergan, and Zyloprim. Which combination of therapeutic uses correctly corresponds to these three medications?

Anticonvulsant, antiemetic, antigout agent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Muscle relaxant, antiemetic, bisphosphonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anticonvulsant, prokinetic agent, uricosuric

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antipsychotic, antihistamine, xanthine oxidase inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 983 of 1136

983. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient presents prescriptions for Concerta, Duragesic, and Adderall. Which controlled substance schedules apply to these medications, respectively?

Schedule II, Schedule II, Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule II, Schedule II, Schedule IV

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule IV, Schedule II, Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule II, Schedule III, Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 984 of 1136

984. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient is receiving both Topamax and Lamictal. Both medications belong to which drug class?

Anticonvulsants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 985 of 1136

985. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient’s discharge summary lists MS Contin, OxyContin, and Norco. The technician should recognize that all three contain which type of active ingredient?

Opioid analgesics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

NSAID analgesics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepine anxiolytics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 986 of 1136

986. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient takes Vyvanse and Strattera. The technician should recognize that one is a controlled substance and one is not. Which classification is correct?

Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine) is Schedule II; Strattera (atomoxetine) is non-controlled

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine) is Schedule IV; Strattera (atomoxetine) is Schedule II

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are Schedule II controlled substances

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both are non-controlled prescription medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 987 of 1136

987. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

During inventory management, a technician is organizing medications by therapeutic class. Which group correctly matches brand names to a single drug class?

Robaxin, Zanaflex, Flexeril, Lioresal: muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Robaxin, Zanaflex, Keppra, Lioresal: muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Robaxin, Zanaflex, Flexeril, Fosamax: muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Robaxin, Ultram, Flexeril, Lioresal: muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 988 of 1136

988. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber sends electronic prescriptions for Mounjaro, Rybelsus, and Ozempic. The technician should recognize that these medications share which common mechanism?

All three are GLP-1 related agonists for type 2 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three are insulin analogs for type 1 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three are DPP-4 inhibitors for type 2 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three are SGLT2 inhibitors for type 2 diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 989 of 1136

989. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which vaccine must be stored in a freezer at -50 to -15 degrees Celsius to maintain viability?

Varicella (chickenpox) vaccine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hepatitis B vaccine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inactivated influenza vaccine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 990 of 1136

990. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Physical Exam

You respond to a 22-year-old male who was assaulted. He is alert and oriented, complaining of left-sided rib pain. During your secondary assessment, you note tenderness over the left lower ribs, and the abdomen is rigid and tender in the left upper quadrant. What should this combination of findings lead you to suspect?

A possible splenic injury from the rib fractures

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A simple rib fracture with localized pain only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A liver laceration from right-sided impact

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A diaphragmatic rupture causing respiratory distress

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 991 of 1136

991. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Physical Exam

The mnemonic DCAP-BTLS is used during the physical exam to identify signs of injury. What does the “T” in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Tenderness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tracheal deviation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tachycardia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Trauma

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 992 of 1136

992. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Reassessment

How often should vital signs be reassessed on an unstable patient during transport?

Every 5 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 10 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Every 15 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continuously without interruption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 993 of 1136

993. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is organizing the controlled substance storage area. The pharmacy stocks both Schedule II and Schedule III medications. Which statement about their storage is correct?

Schedule II substances require a locked cabinet or safe, while Schedule III through V may be dispersed throughout stock

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All controlled substances from Schedule II through V must be in the same locked cabinet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Schedule III substances require a double-lock safe, but Schedule II can be on open shelves

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only Schedule V substances require locked storage; all others may be on open shelves

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 994 of 1136

994. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the FDA flush list. Which of the following medications is included on this list for disposal by flushing when a take-back option is unavailable?

Oxycodone immediate-release tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin extended-release tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole delayed-release capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 995 of 1136

995. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is setting up a new vaccine storage unit. Which type of thermometer does the CDC recommend for monitoring vaccine storage temperatures?

A calibrated digital data logger with a current and valid certificate of calibration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A standard mercury thermometer placed on the top shelf

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An analog dial thermometer attached to the outside of the unit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A liquid-in-glass minimum/maximum thermometer without calibration records

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 996 of 1136

996. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A hospital pharmacy technician finds promethazine suppositories stored at room temperature on the shelf. What action should the technician take?

Move the suppositories to the refrigerator, as they require storage at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leave them at room temperature, as all suppositories are stable at 25 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place them in the freezer to restore their original hardness

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard them immediately, as they cannot be used once stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 997 of 1136

997. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: History Taking

What does the “E” in the SAMPLE history mnemonic stand for?

Events leading up to the illness or injury

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Environmental conditions at the scene

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Emergency medications administered

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Estimated time of symptom onset

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 998 of 1136

998. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Sample Opqrst

In the OPQRST mnemonic used to evaluate a patient’s pain, what does the “P” represent?

Provocation/palliation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pain level on a numeric scale

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Past medical history

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pulse rate at onset

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 999 of 1136

999. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Sample Opqrst

What does the “S” in the SAMPLE history mnemonic represent?

Signs and symptoms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severity of pain

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Scene safety considerations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Secondary assessment findings

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1000 of 1136

1000. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Vital Signs

You assess a 78-year-old female who fell at home. Her blood pressure is 98/60 mmHg, pulse is 110 and weak, respirations are 22, and her skin is cool and pale. Which vital sign pattern is most consistent with her presentation?

Compensated shock

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Normal findings for her age

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolated orthostatic hypotension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hypertensive crisis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1001 of 1136

1001. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Vital Signs

You are obtaining a blood pressure on a large patient and the standard adult cuff does not fit properly around the upper arm. What is the most appropriate action?

Use a larger cuff that fits the patient's arm circumference

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Apply the standard cuff to the patient's forearm instead

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Estimate the blood pressure based on pulse strength

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inflate the standard cuff to a higher pressure to compensate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1002 of 1136

1002. Question

Category: Secondary Assessment: Physical Exam

During a secondary assessment of a trauma patient, what technique does the EMT use to systematically evaluate the entire body?

Rapid full-body scan using a head-to-toe approach

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Focused assessment of the chief complaint area only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Assessment of vital signs before any physical examination

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Auscultation of all lung fields followed by abdominal palpation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1003 of 1136

1003. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is tasked with updating the beyond-use date labeling procedure. Which of the following reconstituted suspensions has a different storage requirement from the other three?

Azithromycin suspension, which is stored at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin suspension, which is stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalexin suspension, which is stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin/clavulanate suspension, which is stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1004 of 1136

1004. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the inventory of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs) in the pharmacy’s clean room refrigerator. The technician finds a bag of compounded total parenteral nutrition (TPN) that was prepared 8 days ago under ISO 5 conditions. According to USP 797, what should the technician do?

Check the beyond-use date; a medium-risk CSP stored refrigerated has a BUD of up to 9 days, so verify if it is still within the assigned dating

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard it immediately because all compounded sterile preparations expire within 24 hours

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Extend the beyond-use date by 48 hours since it has been under continuous refrigeration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer it to the freezer to extend the beyond-use date by an additional 30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1005 of 1136

1005. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is training a new hire on proper vaccine storage procedures. The new hire asks why water bottles are placed inside the vaccine refrigerator. What is the correct explanation?

Water bottles act as a thermal buffer to help maintain stable temperatures when the door is opened or during brief power interruptions

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They are used to calibrate the digital data logger at the start of each shift

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They provide humidity control to prevent vaccines from drying out

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They serve as a visual indicator that the refrigerator is functioning properly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1006 of 1136

1006. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy manager asks a technician to evaluate whether a new medication, classified as a NIOSH hazardous drug, can be stored in the existing pharmacy layout. The pharmacy currently has only a positive pressure clean room and general shelving. What is the technician’s best assessment?

The pharmacy needs to create a dedicated negative pressure storage area before stocking this medication, per USP 800 requirements

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication can be stored on general shelving if kept in the original sealed manufacturer packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The positive pressure clean room is suitable for hazardous drug storage as long as it has HEPA filtration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No facility changes are needed if pharmacy staff wear personal protective equipment when handling the drug

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1007 of 1136

1007. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following medications requires a “protect from light” storage requirement due to photodegradation?

Nitrofurantoin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1008 of 1136

1008. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is stocking the shelf and notices that nifedipine capsules were left on the counter under fluorescent lighting for several hours. What is the most appropriate action?

Notify the pharmacist because nifedipine is light-sensitive and may have degraded

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the capsules to the shelf since short-term exposure is acceptable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place the capsules in the refrigerator to reverse any degradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense the capsules but add an extra week to the expiration date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1009 of 1136

1009. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient returns a bottle of promethazine tablets and reports the tablets have changed color. The technician notices the bottle was a container that was not tightly sealed. What storage requirement was most likely not followed?

Protect from moisture

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerate at 2-8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in a child-resistant container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keep frozen until use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1010 of 1136

1010. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the primary purpose of dispensing medications in amber-colored vials?

To protect light-sensitive medications from photodegradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent moisture absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To distinguish prescription from OTC medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To provide child-resistant packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1011 of 1136

1011. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A technician is preparing to dispense a prescription for furosemide oral solution. The manufacturer label states “protect from light.” Which dispensing container is most appropriate?

An amber bottle with a child-resistant cap

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A clear glass bottle with a dropper

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A white opaque bottle without a cap

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A clear plastic bottle with a measuring cup

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1012 of 1136

1012. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following products is exempt from child-resistant packaging requirements?

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen 200 mg tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acetaminophen 500 mg capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1013 of 1136

1013. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis requests that her prescription for methotrexate tablets be dispensed in a non-child-resistant container because she cannot open the safety cap. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Have the patient or prescriber sign a written request to waive child-resistant packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refuse the request because methotrexate is too dangerous for non-child-resistant containers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Automatically dispense in a non-child-resistant container since the patient has arthritis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient that only the prescriber can authorize non-child-resistant packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1014 of 1136

1014. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician checks the refrigerator thermometer and finds it reading 10 degrees Celsius. According to USP storage definitions, which of the following best describes this temperature?

It is above the acceptable refrigerator range and medications may be compromised

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It falls within the USP-defined refrigerator range of 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It falls within the acceptable "cool" storage range and is equivalent to refrigeration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It is within the controlled room temperature range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1015 of 1136

1015. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy stores medications at a controlled room temperature of 72 degrees Fahrenheit. What is this temperature in degrees Celsius? (Use the formula: C = (F – 32) x 5/9)

22.2 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20.0 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

25.0 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24.4 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1016 of 1136

1016. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient picks up a new prescription for insulin glargine (Lantus) pens. The technician counsels the patient on storage. Which statement about insulin storage is correct?

Unopened pens should be refrigerated, but once opened, they may be kept at room temperature for up to 28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Opened and unopened pens must always be refrigerated at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Once opened, insulin pens should be frozen to extend their beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Unopened insulin pens stored at room temperature are good for 90 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1017 of 1136

1017. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient calls the pharmacy and reports that their unopened insulin vial was accidentally left on the kitchen counter overnight at approximately 75 degrees Fahrenheit. They want to know if the insulin is still usable. What is the best response?

Refer the patient to the pharmacist, who may assign a 28-day beyond-use date at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard the insulin immediately since it has left refrigeration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tell the patient the insulin is fine to use indefinitely at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Instruct the patient to freeze the insulin to restore potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1018 of 1136

1018. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the recommended storage condition for suppositories made with a cocoa butter base?

Refrigerate at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store at controlled room temperature (20 to 25 degrees Celsius)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Freeze at -20 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in a warm environment (30 to 40 degrees Celsius)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1019 of 1136

1019. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy receives a shipment of suppositories, some with a polyethylene glycol (PEG) base and some with a cocoa butter base. The pharmacy has limited refrigerator space. Which suppositories should be prioritized for refrigerator storage?

Cocoa butter base suppositories, because they melt at a lower temperature than PEG base

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PEG base suppositories, because they are more chemically unstable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both types require refrigeration equally

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither type requires refrigeration if stored below 30 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1020 of 1136

1020. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

According to USP definitions, what temperature range qualifies as a “cool” storage location?

8 to 15 degrees Celsius (46 to 59 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 to 25 degrees Celsius (59 to 77 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 to 25 degrees Celsius (68 to 77 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1021 of 1136

1021. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Melatonin is available over the counter and is used primarily for which purpose?

Short-term management of insomnia and sleep-wake cycle regulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Treatment of chronic migraine headaches

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Management of seasonal allergies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevention of iron deficiency anemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1022 of 1136

1022. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient recovering from surgery is prescribed a stool softener to prevent constipation from opioid pain medication. The prescription reads “Colace 100 mg PO BID.” What is the generic name?

Docusate sodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bisacodyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene glycol 3350

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Senna

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1023 of 1136

1023. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A customer asks for a non-drowsy allergy medication for daily use. The technician locates Zyrtec on the shelf. Which drug class does this OTC product belong to?

Second-generation antihistamine (cetirizine)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

First-generation antihistamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nasal corticosteroid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1024 of 1136

1024. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which OTC medication, commonly sold under brand names such as Bayer and Ecotrin, contains aspirin?

Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naproxen sodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acetaminophen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1025 of 1136

1025. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient on warfarin asks about purchasing low-dose aspirin (81 mg) for heart health. Why should the pharmacy technician refer this patient to the pharmacist before completing the sale?

Aspirin has antiplatelet effects that can increase bleeding risk when combined with warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin and warfarin are therapeutic duplicates with no additional benefit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Low-dose aspirin is a prescription-only product and cannot be sold OTC

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1026 of 1136

1026. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient with moderate Alzheimer’s disease is currently taking Aricept 10 mg daily. The physician adds Namenda to the regimen. What is the rationale for combining these two medications?

Donepezil (Aricept) is a cholinesterase inhibitor and memantine (Namenda) is an NMDA antagonist; they work by different mechanisms and can be used together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both drugs are cholinesterase inhibitors but target different enzyme subtypes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Memantine reduces the side effects of donepezil so they must be given together

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Namenda replaces Aricept at the moderate stage because cholinesterase inhibitors are only for mild disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1027 of 1136

1027. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient tests positive for COVID-19 and the physician prescribes Paxlovid. The pharmacy technician notes that the patient also takes atorvastatin. Why is it important to flag this combination for pharmacist review?

Paxlovid contains ritonavir, a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, which can significantly increase atorvastatin levels and the risk of rhabdomyolysis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Paxlovid reduces the effectiveness of atorvastatin, requiring a dose increase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin is contraindicated in patients with active viral infections

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nirmatrelvir directly binds to statin molecules and inactivates them

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1028 of 1136

1028. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking Plaquenil for the past two years. The physician recommends annual eye exams. What is the generic name for Plaquenil, and why are eye exams important?

Hydroxychloroquine; long-term use can cause retinal toxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chloroquine; long-term use can cause liver failure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sulfasalazine; long-term use can cause corneal deposits

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate; long-term use can cause optic neuritis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1029 of 1136

1029. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient is being started on methotrexate (Trexall) for rheumatoid arthritis. The prescription also includes folic acid 1 mg daily. What is the purpose of prescribing folic acid alongside methotrexate?

Folic acid supplementation reduces the incidence of methotrexate side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and hepatotoxicity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid enhances the anti-inflammatory effect of methotrexate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid is required to activate methotrexate in the body

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Folic acid prevents methotrexate from being cleared too rapidly by the kidneys

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1030 of 1136

1030. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for tretinoin topical?

Retin-A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Accutane

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Differin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tazorac

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1031 of 1136

1031. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for evolocumab?

Repatha

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Praluent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leqvio

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zetia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1032 of 1136

1032. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A postmenopausal patient with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer is prescribed Arimidex. What is the generic name for Arimidex, and to which drug class does it belong?

Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tamoxifen, a selective estrogen receptor modulator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Letrozole, a PCSK9 inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Exemestane, a monoclonal antibody

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1033 of 1136

1033. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient is taking both calcium carbonate (Tums) and calcium citrate (Citracal). They ask the technician if these products are interchangeable. Which statement best describes the clinical difference between these two calcium salts?

Calcium citrate does not require stomach acid for absorption and can be taken without food, while calcium carbonate requires an acidic environment and should be taken with meals

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium carbonate is better absorbed on an empty stomach, while calcium citrate must be taken with food

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium citrate contains more elemental calcium per tablet than calcium carbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

There is no clinical difference; both products are identical in absorption and dosing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1034 of 1136

1034. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pregnant patient is prescribed folic acid (Vitamin B9) supplementation. What is the primary reason folic acid is recommended during pregnancy?

To prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent gestational diabetes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To increase maternal iron absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To reduce the risk of preeclampsia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1035 of 1136

1035. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient diagnosed with pernicious anemia requires lifelong supplementation with cyanocobalamin. Which vitamin is cyanocobalamin?

Vitamin B12

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B6

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B9 (folic acid)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1036 of 1136

1036. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following medications requires protection from light and is typically dispensed in an amber vial?

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1037 of 1136

1037. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

According to USP definitions, what is the temperature range for controlled room temperature storage?

20 to 25 degrees Celsius (68 to 77 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 to 20 degrees Celsius (59 to 68 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

25 to 30 degrees Celsius (77 to 86 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1038 of 1136

1038. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the USP-defined temperature range for refrigerated medication storage?

2 to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

0 to 4 degrees Celsius (32 to 39 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8 to 15 degrees Celsius (46 to 59 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

-10 to 0 degrees Celsius (14 to 32 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1039 of 1136

1039. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

Which of the following medications is light sensitive and should be dispensed in a light-resistant container?

Nifedipine capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Losartan tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1040 of 1136

1040. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is stocking shelves and notices a bottle of sodium nitroprusside injection is stored on an open shelf under fluorescent lighting. What action should the technician take?

Move the vial to a location protected from light, as sodium nitroprusside is light sensitive

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leave it on the shelf because injectable medications do not require light protection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Place it in the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the vial to the manufacturer as defective

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1041 of 1136

1041. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient asks how to store an unopened insulin pen that was just picked up from the pharmacy. The patient will not begin using it for three weeks. What is the correct storage instruction?

Store it in the refrigerator at 36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit until ready to use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store it at room temperature since it will be used within 30 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store it in the freezer to extend shelf life

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keep it in a cool, dry place away from sunlight at all times

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1042 of 1136

1042. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for promethazine suppositories. The pharmacy stores these on a standard room temperature shelf. Where should these suppositories be stored?

In the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius to prevent melting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At controlled room temperature of 20 to 25 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In the freezer at -20 to -10 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In a cool, dry place at 8 to 15 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1043 of 1136

1043. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient returns to the pharmacy with an opened insulin vial that has been stored at room temperature for 45 days. The patient asks if the insulin is still good. What should the pharmacy technician relay to the pharmacist?

The insulin should be discarded because opened vials stored at room temperature are generally good for only 28 days

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The insulin is still good as long as the expiration date on the box has not passed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The insulin can be returned to the refrigerator to extend its usability

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The insulin is good for 90 days at room temperature once opened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1044 of 1136

1044. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is dispensing a prescription for doxycycline capsules. The label indicates “protect from moisture.” Which action best ensures proper storage for this medication?

Dispense in a tightly closed container with a desiccant packet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispense in an amber vial to protect from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store in the refrigerator to reduce humidity exposure

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer to a glass bottle to prevent moisture absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1045 of 1136

1045. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is training a new employee on proper medication storage. The new employee asks when a non-child-resistant container may be used. Which of the following is a valid reason to dispense without a child-resistant closure?

The patient or prescriber submits a written request to waive child-resistant packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The medication is an over-the-counter product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The prescription is for a quantity of 30 or fewer tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient is over 65 years of age

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1046 of 1136

1046. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician notices the pharmacy refrigerator is reading 12 degrees Celsius (54 degrees Fahrenheit). The refrigerator contains insulin vials, promethazine suppositories, and amoxicillin suspension. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?

Notify the pharmacist and move all refrigerated medications to a properly functioning refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjust the thermostat and check back in one hour

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Move only the insulin to another refrigerator since the other items are stable at room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Document the temperature reading and continue normal operations

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1047 of 1136

1047. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A pharmacy technician is reviewing storage conditions and finds furosemide oral solution stored in a clear plastic bottle on an open shelf, metoclopramide tablets in an original manufacturer bottle, and aspirin tablets in a container without a desiccant. Which medication has the most critical storage error?

Furosemide oral solution, because it is light sensitive and must be stored in a light-resistant container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoclopramide tablets, because they require refrigerated storage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aspirin tablets, because they always require a desiccant packet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

All three medications are stored correctly

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1048 of 1136

1048. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

During a routine inventory audit, a pharmacy technician discovers the following issues: (1) an opened vial of insulin glargine has been at room temperature for 20 days, (2) a box of indomethacin suppositories is stored on a shelf at room temperature, and (3) a bottle of tretinoin cream is in a clear container near a window. Which combination of actions is most appropriate?

The insulin is acceptable for now; move the suppositories to the refrigerator; relocate the tretinoin away from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard the insulin; the suppositories are fine at room temperature; relocate the tretinoin away from light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The insulin is acceptable for now; the suppositories are fine at room temperature; the tretinoin does not need light protection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard the insulin; move the suppositories to the refrigerator; the tretinoin does not need light protection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1049 of 1136

1049. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Micardis is the brand name for which generic medication?

Telmisartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Irbesartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Olmesartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1050 of 1136

1050. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which of the following is the generic name for Apresoline?

Hydralazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydroxyzine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrocortisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1051 of 1136

1051. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Imdur?

Isosorbide mononitrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nitroglycerin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydralazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1052 of 1136

1052. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Aricept is the brand name for which medication?

Donepezil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rivastigmine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Galantamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Memantine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1053 of 1136

1053. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which of the following is the brand name for memantine?

Namenda

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aricept

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Razadyne

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Exelon

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1054 of 1136

1054. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient presents a prescription for Omnicef 300 mg capsules. The pharmacy technician should select which generic medication from the shelf?

Cefdinir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cephalexin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cefuroxime

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ceftriaxone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1055 of 1136

1055. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for oseltamivir?

Tamiflu

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Relenza

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Xofluza

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Symmetrel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1056 of 1136

1056. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescriber calls in a prescription for Paxlovid for a patient with COVID-19. Which generic drug combination will the pharmacy technician dispense?

Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Molnupiravir/ritonavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Remdesivir/ritonavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oseltamivir/ritonavir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1057 of 1136

1057. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Humalog is the brand name for which insulin product?

Insulin lispro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin aspart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glulisine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glargine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1058 of 1136

1058. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for NovoLog?

Insulin aspart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin lispro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glargine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin detemir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1059 of 1136

1059. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Tresiba FlexTouch pens. Which insulin product should be selected?

Insulin degludec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glargine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin detemir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin lispro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1060 of 1136

1060. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which of the following is the brand name for insulin detemir?

Levemir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lantus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tresiba

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Humalog

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1061 of 1136

1061. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Humulin N and Novolin N are brand names for which type of insulin?

Insulin NPH (isophane)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin regular

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin glargine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insulin aspart

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1062 of 1136

1062. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Colace?

Docusate sodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bisacodyl

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Senna

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polyethylene glycol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1063 of 1136

1063. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Xyzal?

Levocetirizine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cetirizine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Loratadine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Desloratadine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1064 of 1136

1064. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A patient asks for a refill of their Astepro nasal spray. The pharmacy technician should look for which generic medication?

Azelastine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Olopatadine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluticasone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipratropium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1065 of 1136

1065. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Drisdol is the brand name for which vitamin supplement?

Ergocalciferol (Vitamin D2)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcitriol (Vitamin D active)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1066 of 1136

1066. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which of the following is also known as Vitamin D3 and is widely available over the counter?

Cholecalciferol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ergocalciferol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcitriol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alfacalcidol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1067 of 1136

1067. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Feosol and Fer-In-Sol are brand names for which iron supplement?

Ferrous sulfate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ferrous gluconate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ferrous fumarate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron dextran

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1068 of 1136

1068. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A customer asks the pharmacy technician for help locating Tums. The active ingredient in Tums is which of the following?

Calcium carbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium citrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium hydroxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aluminum hydroxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1069 of 1136

1069. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Mag-Ox 400 is an OTC supplement containing which active ingredient?

Magnesium oxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium citrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium sulfate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium hydroxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1070 of 1136

1070. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient asks the pharmacist about an OTC product for jet lag. The pharmacist recommends a supplement. Which OTC product is most commonly used to help regulate sleep-wake cycles during travel?

Melatonin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diphenhydramine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valerian root

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Magnesium oxide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1071 of 1136

1071. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for hydroxychloroquine?

Plaquenil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Aralen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rheumatrex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Azulfidine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1072 of 1136

1072. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician notices that a patient profile lists both Rheumatrex and Trexall as active medications. What should the technician recognize about these two products?

They are both brand names for methotrexate and represent a therapeutic duplication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They are different drugs that treat the same condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rheumatrex is methotrexate and Trexall is leflunomide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

They can be safely taken together for enhanced efficacy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1073 of 1136

1073. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A pharmacy technician is processing a new prescription for losartan 50 mg daily for a patient whose profile already shows valsartan 160 mg daily. What should the technician do?

Alert the pharmacist to a potential therapeutic duplication involving two ARBs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fill the prescription because losartan and valsartan are different medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Contact the prescriber directly to recommend discontinuing valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Substitute the losartan for a higher dose of valsartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1074 of 1136

1074. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

Which of the following best defines therapeutic duplication?

Using two or more drugs from the same pharmacologic class to treat the same condition

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prescribing a brand-name and generic version of the same drug simultaneously

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dispensing a medication that interacts with a food the patient regularly consumes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Taking the same medication at two different pharmacies

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1075 of 1136

1075. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient presents prescriptions from two different providers: one for warfarin 5 mg daily and another for rivaroxaban 20 mg daily. The pharmacy technician should recognize this as which type of concern?

Therapeutic duplication involving two anticoagulants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An adverse drug reaction requiring MedWatch reporting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An appropriate combination therapy for deep vein thrombosis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A controlled substance scheduling conflict

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1076 of 1136

1076. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient’s medication profile includes amlodipine 10 mg daily. A new prescription arrives for nifedipine ER 30 mg daily. Which concern should the pharmacy technician identify?

Therapeutic duplication of two calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A drug interaction causing increased potassium levels

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An incorrect dose of nifedipine for the extended-release formulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A contraindication due to both drugs being beta-blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1077 of 1136

1077. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which of the following medications is light sensitive and must be stored in an amber or opaque container to prevent degradation?

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin capsules

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril tablets

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1078 of 1136

1078. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician notices that a bottle of sodium nitroprusside injection has been left on the counter under fluorescent lighting for several hours. What is the most appropriate action?

Discard the vial because sodium nitroprusside degrades rapidly when exposed to light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return the vial to the shelf since injectable drugs are not affected by light

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wrap the vial in aluminum foil and continue to use it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Refrigerate the vial to restore its potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1079 of 1136

1079. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

According to USP 797, a single-dose vial that has been opened or needle-punctured in an ISO Class 5 environment must be used within what timeframe?

Within 1 hour of opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Within 28 days if stored in the refrigerator

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Within 6 hours at controlled room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Within 24 hours if labeled with the date and time of opening

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1080 of 1136

1080. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is checking the vaccine refrigerator and finds the temperature reading is 15 degrees Celsius. Which action should be taken?

Quarantine the affected vaccines and notify the pharmacist of a temperature excursion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue storing the vaccines because 15 degrees Celsius is within the acceptable range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Move the vaccines to the freezer to quickly lower their temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjust the thermostat and resume normal use without reporting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1081 of 1136

1081. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A vial of reconstituted amoxicillin suspension has a label stating ‘discard after 14 days.’ The technician reconstituted it 16 days ago and it has been refrigerated. What should be done?

Discard the suspension because it has exceeded the beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue to dispense it because refrigeration extends the beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shake the bottle and visually inspect it before dispensing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Return it to the wholesaler for credit as an expired product

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1082 of 1136

1082. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Latanoprost (Xalatan) is primarily indicated for the treatment of which condition?

Open-angle glaucoma or ocular hypertension

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Age-related macular degeneration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic rhinitis

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1083 of 1136

1083. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which class of medications would most likely be prescribed for treatment?

Anticoagulants (e.g., enoxaparin, rivaroxaban, warfarin)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antihypertensives (e.g., amlodipine, losartan)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin, azithromycin)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Antidepressants (e.g., sertraline, fluoxetine)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1084 of 1136

1084. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A pulmonary embolism (PE) is a life-threatening condition caused by a blood clot traveling to the lungs. Which of the following medications may be used to treat a PE?

Heparin (unfractionated) for initial anticoagulation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Albuterol for bronchodilation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prednisone for anti-inflammatory effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin for blood glucose control

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1085 of 1136

1085. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Donepezil (Aricept) is indicated for the treatment of which condition?

Alzheimer disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Parkinson disease

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Major depressive disorder

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epilepsy

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1086 of 1136

1086. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A patient presents with a new prescription for latanoprost 0.005% ophthalmic solution, one drop in each eye at bedtime. What is the primary indication for this medication?

Glaucoma (to reduce intraocular pressure)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bacterial conjunctivitis (eye infection)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allergic conjunctivitis (eye allergy)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dry eye syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1087 of 1136

1087. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Sertraline (Zoloft), fluoxetine (Prozac), and escitalopram (Lexapro) all belong to which drug classification?

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1088 of 1136

1088. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Venlafaxine (Effexor) and duloxetine (Cymbalta) are classified as which type of antidepressant?

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atypical antipsychotics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1089 of 1136

1089. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Alendronate (Fosamax) and risedronate (Actonel) belong to which drug class?

Bisphosphonates

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin receptor blockers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1090 of 1136

1090. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient’s medication list includes amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime for neuropathic pain. Amitriptyline belongs to which drug classification?

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1091 of 1136

1091. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient taking phenelzine (Nardil) reports wanting to eat aged cheese and drink red wine at a party. The pharmacy technician should flag this for the pharmacist because phenelzine belongs to which drug class with strict dietary restrictions?

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Benzodiazepines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1092 of 1136

1092. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Ibuprofen (Advil), naproxen (Aleve), and meloxicam (Mobic) all belong to which drug classification?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Corticosteroids

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Opioid analgesics

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Muscle relaxants

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1093 of 1136

1093. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which of the following medications is most commonly associated with drowsiness as a side effect?

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisinopril (Prinivil)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin (Glucophage)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amlodipine (Norvasc)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1094 of 1136

1094. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A pharmacy receives a new prescription for hydroxyzine pamoate 25 mg capsules. Which common side effect should the pharmacy technician be aware of when processing this prescription?

Drowsiness, which may impair the ability to drive or operate machinery

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased blood pressure requiring frequent monitoring

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hyperglycemia requiring blood sugar testing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Photosensitivity requiring daily sunscreen application

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1095 of 1136

1095. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which class of medications is most commonly associated with causing hypokalemia?

Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta-blockers such as metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1096 of 1136

1096. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient takes furosemide 40 mg daily for heart failure. The physician also prescribes potassium chloride 20 mEq daily. Why is the potassium supplement most likely prescribed?

To prevent hypokalemia caused by the loop diuretic furosemide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To enhance the diuretic effect of furosemide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent hypernatremia associated with furosemide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To reduce the risk of ototoxicity from furosemide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1097 of 1136

1097. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Long-term use of which class of medications is most associated with adrenal suppression?

Systemic corticosteroids such as prednisone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors such as sertraline

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin receptor blockers such as losartan

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1098 of 1136

1098. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

A patient has been taking prednisone 20 mg daily for 6 weeks and the physician wants to discontinue it. Why is a gradual taper recommended instead of abrupt discontinuation?

To prevent adrenal crisis due to adrenal suppression from prolonged corticosteroid use

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prevent rebound hypertension from sudden withdrawal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To avoid serotonin syndrome from rapid discontinuation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To minimize the risk of seizures upon stopping the medication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1099 of 1136

1099. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

Which class of medications is most commonly associated with an increased risk of GI bleed?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and naproxen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Statins such as atorvastatin and simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril and enalapril

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole and pantoprazole

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1100 of 1136

1100. Question

Category: Medications: Side Effects Adverse

An elderly patient takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation and asks about using over-the-counter ibuprofen for knee pain. Which concern should be flagged for the pharmacist?

The combination significantly increases the risk of GI bleed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen will decrease the effectiveness of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The combination will cause dangerous hyperkalemia

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ibuprofen is contraindicated in patients over age 65

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1101 of 1136

1101. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

What is the recommended storage condition for most suppositories to maintain their shape and integrity?

Refrigerated (2 to 8 degrees Celsius) or in a cool place to prevent melting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At controlled room temperature (20 to 25 degrees Celsius)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In a freezer at minus 20 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At body temperature (37 degrees Celsius) for ease of insertion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1102 of 1136

1102. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A patient picks up a prescription for promethazine suppositories and asks about storage at home. What guidance should be provided?

Store the suppositories in the refrigerator to prevent softening and maintain their shape

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keep them at room temperature in a medicine cabinet

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Store them in the freezer for maximum shelf life

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No special storage is needed since they are solid dosage forms

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1103 of 1136

1103. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

According to USP definitions, what temperature range does a cool dry place represent for medication storage?

8 to 15 degrees Celsius (46 to 59 degrees Fahrenheit) with low humidity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 to 25 degrees Celsius (68 to 77 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 to 30 degrees Celsius (59 to 86 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1104 of 1136

1104. Question

Category: Medications: Medication Storage

A medication label states ‘Store in a cool dry place.’ A pharmacy technician should store this product in which location?

An area maintained between 8 and 15 degrees Celsius with low humidity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The regular pharmacy shelf at controlled room temperature

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The pharmacy freezer at minus 20 to minus 10 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1105 of 1136

1105. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

Which of the following is the most common method used to protect from light for medications that are photosensitive?

Dispensing in amber-colored containers or wrapping IV bags in light-protective covers

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Storing the medication in the pharmacy freezer

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Placing the medication in child-resistant packaging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Applying tamper-evident seals to the container

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1106 of 1136

1106. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician is preparing nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for dispensing. The original manufacturer’s bottle is amber glass. What should the technician consider regarding light protection?

Dispense in the original amber container or an equivalent light-protective container to protect from light degradation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer to a clear plastic vial for easier patient identification

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repackage in a white opaque bottle with a 1-year beyond-use date

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Remove the cotton from the bottle and replace it with a desiccant only

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1107 of 1136

1107. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

What is the recommended storage temperature range for most refrigerated vaccines according to CDC guidelines?

2 to 8 degrees Celsius (36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

8 to 15 degrees Celsius (46 to 59 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 to 25 degrees Celsius (68 to 77 degrees Fahrenheit)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minus 50 to minus 15 degrees Celsius

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1108 of 1136

1108. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Stability

A pharmacy technician discovers that the vaccine storage refrigerator temperature logged at 12 degrees Celsius overnight. What action should be taken?

Quarantine the affected vaccines, do not administer them, and report the temperature excursion to the pharmacist and vaccine manufacturer or state immunization program

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continue using the vaccines since the temperature was only slightly above range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Move the vaccines to the freezer to quickly restore their potency

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discard all vaccines immediately without consulting anyone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1109 of 1136

1109. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

A patient presents prescriptions for both lisinopril 10 mg and enalapril 5 mg. What concern should the pharmacy technician flag for the pharmacist?

Duplicate therapy, as both medications are ACE inhibitors with the same mechanism of action

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A drug-drug interaction that causes serotonin syndrome

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An incorrect dosage form for one of the medications

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A controlled substance scheduling conflict between the two drugs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1110 of 1136

1110. Question

Category: Medications: Therapeutic Duplications

During a prospective drug utilization review, the pharmacy system alerts for duplicate therapy when a patient receives both omeprazole and pantoprazole. Why is this alert clinically significant?

Both are proton pump inhibitors, and using two PPIs simultaneously provides no additional benefit while increasing side effect risk

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The two medications have a dangerous drug-drug interaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

One medication cancels out the effect of the other

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Both medications are controlled substances requiring separate DEA tracking

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1111 of 1136

1111. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

Which of the following is a well-known drug-food interaction that patients taking warfarin should be aware of?

Foods high in vitamin K (such as leafy green vegetables) can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Grapefruit juice increases warfarin levels and causes bleeding

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dairy products prevent warfarin absorption completely

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Caffeine neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of warfarin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1112 of 1136

1112. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Interactions

A patient taking ciprofloxacin asks about taking it with a glass of milk. What drug-food interaction should the pharmacist address?

Dairy products contain calcium, which can bind to ciprofloxacin and significantly reduce its absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Milk increases the metabolism of ciprofloxacin in the liver

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dairy products enhance the side effects of ciprofloxacin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Milk converts ciprofloxacin into an inactive metabolite

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1113 of 1136

1113. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment or prevention of osteoporosis?

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1114 of 1136

1114. Question

Category: Medications: Indications

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed alendronate 70 mg once weekly for osteoporosis. Which administration instruction is critical for this medication?

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of plain water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take at bedtime with a full meal to reduce GI side effects

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce for easier swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take with milk or calcium-fortified juice to enhance absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1115 of 1136

1115. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

Extended-release (ER) tablets should generally be administered by which method?

Swallow whole without crushing, chewing, or splitting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crush and mix with applesauce for easier administration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chew thoroughly before swallowing for faster onset

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dissolve in water and drink the solution

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1116 of 1136

1116. Question

Category: Medications: Strengths Doses Forms

A patient has difficulty swallowing large tablets and asks a pharmacy technician if they can crush their metoprolol succinate ER 100 mg tablet. What should the technician communicate?

This medication must be swallowed whole; crushing it would release the full dose at once, and the pharmacist can discuss alternatives

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, all tablets can be safely crushed for easier swallowing

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient should cut the tablet in half and take each half separately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The patient should dissolve the tablet in hot water before drinking it

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1117 of 1136

1117. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for the combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim?

Bactrim

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Augmentin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cipro

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Keflex

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1118 of 1136

1118. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription is written for Bactrim DS. The pharmacy technician should select a product containing which generic ingredients?

Sulfamethoxazole 800 mg and trimethoprim 160 mg (double-strength combination)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Amoxicillin 875 mg and clavulanate 125 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sulfasalazine 500 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1119 of 1136

1119. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the brand name for sucralfate?

Carafate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Protonix

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nexium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pepcid

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1120 of 1136

1120. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Mobic?

Meloxicam

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metoprolol

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metformin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Montelukast

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1121 of 1136

1121. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

Which of the following is classified as an MAO inhibitor (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)?

Phenelzine (Nardil)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1122 of 1136

1122. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A patient taking an MAO inhibitor such as phenelzine should avoid foods containing tyramine. Which food should the patient avoid?

Aged cheese, because it contains high levels of tyramine that can cause a hypertensive crisis when combined with an MAO inhibitor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fresh bananas, because the potassium content interacts with MAO inhibitors

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

White bread, because the gluten content reduces MAO inhibitor absorption

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cooked chicken breast, because the protein binds to MAO inhibitors in the stomach

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1123 of 1136

1123. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for the cholesterol-lowering medication Mevacor?

Lovastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pravastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Atorvastatin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1124 of 1136

1124. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which brand name corresponds to the ACE inhibitor benazepril?

Lotensin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lotrel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prinivil

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vasotec

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1125 of 1136

1125. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for Thalitone, a thiazide-like diuretic used to treat hypertension?

Chlorthalidone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Indapamide

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metolazone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1126 of 1136

1126. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Lithobid 300 mg tablets. Which generic name should appear on the dispensing label?

Lithium carbonate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lithium citrate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Divalproex sodium

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carbamazepine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1127 of 1136

1127. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Focalin and Focalin XR are brand names for which CNS stimulant?

Dexmethylphenidate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methylphenidate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dextroamphetamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lisdexamfetamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1128 of 1136

1128. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Antivert 25 mg tablets. Which generic name should appear on the dispensing label?

Meclizine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Dimenhydrinate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promethazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Scopolamine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1129 of 1136

1129. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which brand name is associated with azithromycin, a commonly prescribed macrolide antibiotic?

Zithromax

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Biaxin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Erythrocin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ketek

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1130 of 1136

1130. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

What is the generic name for the lincosamide antibiotic Cleocin?

Clindamycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clarithromycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Azithromycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vancomycin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1131 of 1136

1131. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A prescription is received for Valtrex 1 g tablets for a patient with herpes zoster. Which generic drug should the technician select from the shelf?

Valacyclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Acyclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Famciclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ganciclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1132 of 1136

1132. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Zovirax is the brand name for which antiviral medication?

Acyclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Valacyclovir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oseltamivir

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ribavirin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1133 of 1136

1133. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

A pharmacy technician is verifying a prescription for Depo-Testosterone, a Schedule III controlled substance. The technician notices the prescriber wrote the generic name on the prescription. Which generic name should appear?

Testosterone cypionate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methyltestosterone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxandrolone

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nandrolone decanoate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1134 of 1136

1134. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Which of the following is a brand name for the NSAID diclofenac?

Voltaren

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Feldene

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mobic

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Relafen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1135 of 1136

1135. Question

Category: Medications: Brand Generic Names

Adipex-P is a brand name for which Schedule IV weight management medication?

Phentermine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Phendimetrazine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Orlistat

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Naltrexone/bupropion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 1136 of 1136

1136. Question

Category: Medications: Drug Classifications

A customer asks a pharmacy technician to help find an OTC sleep aid supplement. The pharmacist suggests a product containing melatonin. Which of the following best describes melatonin?

A hormone supplement available without a prescription under various OTC brand names

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A prescription-only sedative sold under the brand name Rozerem

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A Schedule IV controlled substance available only behind the pharmacy counter

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

An antihistamine sleep aid marketed as Unisom

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

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