Free CCRN Practice Test
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Question 1 of 16
1. Question
The figure above represents several oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves. Curve A represents a normal oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. The curve of a patient experiencing hyperthermia would most likely resemble:
Correct
In dealing with oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves, a shift to the right from the normal curve is an indication that less oxygen is in the blood (hemoglobin is more readily releasing oxygen to the tissues). This can be cause by a number of conditions including acidosis, hyperthermia, hypercarbia, and increased levels of 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate.
Incorrect
In dealing with oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves, a shift to the right from the normal curve is an indication that less oxygen is in the blood (hemoglobin is more readily releasing oxygen to the tissues). This can be cause by a number of conditions including acidosis, hyperthermia, hypercarbia, and increased levels of 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate.
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Question 2 of 16
2. Question
Which of the following developmental conditions is caused by damage to the motor control regions of the developing brain?
Correct
Cerebral palsy is a general term that is used to describe a group of non-progressive, non-contagious motor conditions that occur as a result of damage to the motor control regions of the developing brain. The musculoskeletal disabilities associated with cerebral palsy can vary widely, from minor to extreme.
Incorrect
Cerebral palsy is a general term that is used to describe a group of non-progressive, non-contagious motor conditions that occur as a result of damage to the motor control regions of the developing brain. The musculoskeletal disabilities associated with cerebral palsy can vary widely, from minor to extreme.
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Question 3 of 16
3. Question
A patient in the ICU is presenting with symptoms of delirium. Pharmacologic treatment for delirium often includes:
I. Antipsychotics
II. Benzodiazepines
III. AntidepressantsCorrect
Delirium is an acute disorder characterized by attention, perception, and memory impairment. It is often the symptom of an underlying condition, such as dementia, medication overdose, substance intoxication, and electrolyte disorders. Pharmacologic treatment for delirium often involves the use of antipsychotics or benzodiazepines, depending on the underlying cause of the delirium. Antidepressants are not typically employed for the treatment of acute conditions such as delirium.
Incorrect
Delirium is an acute disorder characterized by attention, perception, and memory impairment. It is often the symptom of an underlying condition, such as dementia, medication overdose, substance intoxication, and electrolyte disorders. Pharmacologic treatment for delirium often involves the use of antipsychotics or benzodiazepines, depending on the underlying cause of the delirium. Antidepressants are not typically employed for the treatment of acute conditions such as delirium.
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Question 4 of 16
4. Question
Which of the following medications are classified as osmotic diuretics?
I. Mannitol
II. Furosemide
III. Ethacrynic acidCorrect
Diuretics are classified according to the site of the kidney they affect. Loop diuretics act in the loop of Henle, and include furosemide and ethacrynic acid. Mannitol is considered an osmotic diuretic.
Incorrect
Diuretics are classified according to the site of the kidney they affect. Loop diuretics act in the loop of Henle, and include furosemide and ethacrynic acid. Mannitol is considered an osmotic diuretic.
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Question 5 of 16
5. Question
In mitral valve regurgitation, blood flows back into the:
Correct
In mitral valve regurgitation, the incompetent mitral valve (valve separating the left atrium and left ventricle) allows blood to flow back into the left atrium.
Incorrect
In mitral valve regurgitation, the incompetent mitral valve (valve separating the left atrium and left ventricle) allows blood to flow back into the left atrium.
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Question 6 of 16
6. Question
When performing an assessment of renal function, a normal BUN-to-creatinine ratio is:
Correct
A BUN-to-creatinine ratio less than 20:1 is indicative of normal renal function. A BUN-to-creatinine ratio greater the 20:1 is an indication of an acute renal insufficiency (dehydration or fluid loss).
Incorrect
A BUN-to-creatinine ratio less than 20:1 is indicative of normal renal function. A BUN-to-creatinine ratio greater the 20:1 is an indication of an acute renal insufficiency (dehydration or fluid loss).
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Question 7 of 16
7. Question
Damage or disease affecting the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is likely to lead to electrolyte imbalance due to dysfunction of:
Correct
The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone. The function of this hormone is to help regulate electrolyte imbalance via the promotion of sodium reabsorption and potassium loss. Thus damage to this region of the adrenal cortex is likely to lead to aldosterone dysfunction, ultimately resulting in electrolyte imbalance.
Incorrect
The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone. The function of this hormone is to help regulate electrolyte imbalance via the promotion of sodium reabsorption and potassium loss. Thus damage to this region of the adrenal cortex is likely to lead to aldosterone dysfunction, ultimately resulting in electrolyte imbalance.
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Question 8 of 16
8. Question
The two principle biochemical agents that are released from the endothelium of blood vessels and function to decrease blood flow to sites of injury and conserve blood volume are:
Correct
The first stage of hemostasis typically involves decreasing blood flow to the site of injury in order to conserve blood volume. This is accomplished via that actions of endothelin and thromboxane A2, biochemical agents that are released via the vascular endothelium and cause vasoconstriction of the smooth muscle of the vascular wall. Thrombin, prothrombin, fibrogenin, serotonin, and collagen are factors that aid in the formation of a platelet plug.
Incorrect
The first stage of hemostasis typically involves decreasing blood flow to the site of injury in order to conserve blood volume. This is accomplished via that actions of endothelin and thromboxane A2, biochemical agents that are released via the vascular endothelium and cause vasoconstriction of the smooth muscle of the vascular wall. Thrombin, prothrombin, fibrogenin, serotonin, and collagen are factors that aid in the formation of a platelet plug.
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Question 9 of 16
9. Question
Which of the following granulocytes serves to stimulate the inflammatory response via the release of histamine?
Correct
Basophils are nonphagocytic cells that reside just outside the capillaries. They release substances including histamine, heparin, bradykinin, and serotonin, which serve to attract IgE to their cell surface and stimulate the inflammatory response/allergic reaction within the body.
Incorrect
Basophils are nonphagocytic cells that reside just outside the capillaries. They release substances including histamine, heparin, bradykinin, and serotonin, which serve to attract IgE to their cell surface and stimulate the inflammatory response/allergic reaction within the body.
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Question 10 of 16
10. Question
Which of the following is an isotonic solution that can be administered to a hypovolemic patient in an attempt to replace fluid volume without causing significant fluid shifts across the cellular membranes or vessels?
Correct
Isotonic solution have equal concentrations of solutes compared to their surroundings. Thus the administration of an isotonic solution will NOT significantly shift fluid volumes across the cellular membranes or vessels. (0.9%) Normal Saline is an isotonic solution that can be used for this purpose. 3% Normal Saline is a hypertonic solution that will tend to draw fluid from cells and interstitial spaces into vessels. D5W (5% Dextrose in Water) and D5 0.5 NS (5% Dextrose and 0.45% Normal Saline) are both hypotonic solution that will tend to have the opposite effect of hypertonic solutions, and will increase total body edema.
Incorrect
Isotonic solution have equal concentrations of solutes compared to their surroundings. Thus the administration of an isotonic solution will NOT significantly shift fluid volumes across the cellular membranes or vessels. (0.9%) Normal Saline is an isotonic solution that can be used for this purpose. 3% Normal Saline is a hypertonic solution that will tend to draw fluid from cells and interstitial spaces into vessels. D5W (5% Dextrose in Water) and D5 0.5 NS (5% Dextrose and 0.45% Normal Saline) are both hypotonic solution that will tend to have the opposite effect of hypertonic solutions, and will increase total body edema.
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Question 11 of 16
11. Question
Which of the following correctly orders the four layers of the gastrointestinal wall from the most superficial to the most internal?
Correct
The wall of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of four layers. Starting with the most superficial, the order is: the serosa, the muscularis, the submucosa, and finally the mucosa.
Incorrect
The wall of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of four layers. Starting with the most superficial, the order is: the serosa, the muscularis, the submucosa, and finally the mucosa.
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Question 12 of 16
12. Question
Which of the following correctly characterizes encephalitis?
Correct
Encephalitis is a CNS infection that is characterized by inflammation of brain tissue. The condition is most commonly caused by viral infection, but can also be caused by other pathogens including bacteria, fungi, and parasites. The highest incidence of encephalitis is in children under the age of 10, and presenting symptoms commonly include headache, nausea, fever, and photophobia. Treatment generally involves the administration of appropriate anti-infectious medications.
Incorrect
Encephalitis is a CNS infection that is characterized by inflammation of brain tissue. The condition is most commonly caused by viral infection, but can also be caused by other pathogens including bacteria, fungi, and parasites. The highest incidence of encephalitis is in children under the age of 10, and presenting symptoms commonly include headache, nausea, fever, and photophobia. Treatment generally involves the administration of appropriate anti-infectious medications.
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Question 13 of 16
13. Question
Which of the following correctly identifies the number of vertebrae in each segment of the vertebral column?
Correct
The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal. The 5 sacral vertebrae are fused together as one, as are the 4 coccygeal. Between each of the non-fused vertebrae are inter-vertebral discs, which provide flexibility as well as act as shock absorbers. The main function of the vertebral column is to protect the spinal cord.
Incorrect
The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal. The 5 sacral vertebrae are fused together as one, as are the 4 coccygeal. Between each of the non-fused vertebrae are inter-vertebral discs, which provide flexibility as well as act as shock absorbers. The main function of the vertebral column is to protect the spinal cord.
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Question 14 of 16
14. Question
In regards to the Synergy Model for Patient Care, which of the following refers to the ability of a nurse to utilize their knowledge and skill set to comprehend how one decision can impact and affect the system as a whole?
Correct
Nurse characteristics comprise one of the four components of the Synergy Model for Patient Care. Systems thinking refers to the ability of a nurse to manage environmental and system resources, via the use of their knowledge and skill set, in a way that enables them to comprehend how one decision can impact the system as a whole.
Incorrect
Nurse characteristics comprise one of the four components of the Synergy Model for Patient Care. Systems thinking refers to the ability of a nurse to manage environmental and system resources, via the use of their knowledge and skill set, in a way that enables them to comprehend how one decision can impact the system as a whole.
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Question 15 of 16
15. Question
Which of the following ethical principles is mandated by HIPPA laws?
Correct
Patient confidentiality is an ethical principle mandated by HIPPA laws. The Privacy Rule in particular prevents healthcare providers from revealing or disclosing any of the healthcare related discussions they have had with their patients. The Privacy Rule also prohibits the release of any of the patient’s medically related documents without the patient’s written consent.
Incorrect
Patient confidentiality is an ethical principle mandated by HIPPA laws. The Privacy Rule in particular prevents healthcare providers from revealing or disclosing any of the healthcare related discussions they have had with their patients. The Privacy Rule also prohibits the release of any of the patient’s medically related documents without the patient’s written consent.
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Question 16 of 16
16. Question
Atypical bacterial pathogens that are associated with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) include:
Correct
A host of pathogens (typical and atypical) are known to cause community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Typical bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Atypical pathogens include Chlamydia pneumoniae, Mycoplasma species, and Legionella species.
Incorrect
A host of pathogens (typical and atypical) are known to cause community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Typical bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Atypical pathogens include Chlamydia pneumoniae, Mycoplasma species, and Legionella species.
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The Critical Care Registered Nurse (CCRN) designation is a certification to identify nurses who are specially skilled in providing care to acutely and/or critically ill adult, pediatric and neonatal patients.
The AACN CCRN exam consists entirely of multiple-choice questions. Passing of the AACN CCRN exam is determined exclusively on the number of multiple choice questions that are answered correctly. Each multiple choice question will have four answer choices, of which only one is correct. Questions are presented individually, then after answering, the test-taker can proceed to the next question. Answer each question by clicking on the choice that you would like to select. You may only select one choice at a time, and are able to change your answer choice even after one is selected. After completing the selection process, click the forward arrow to proceed to the next question. The AACN CCRN test-taker may also use the back arrow to view previously answered questions. Individuals are not required to answer all questions, however there is no penalty for incorrect choices, thus all questions should be answered before the test is complete. The CCRN test also allows for the test-taker to bookmark the question for review at a later time. To bookmark a question, simply click the bookmarking icon. Approximately one month following the exam, candidates who successfully passed the CCRN will receive a letter of congratulations and certificate.
Nurses interested in this certification may work in specialty areas such as intensive care units, cardiac care units, combined ICU/CCUs, medical/surgical ICUs, trauma units or critical care transport/flight. The most recent study defines the dimensions of critical care practice, identifying what is required of registered nurses practicing in acute and critical care settings. In the study, critical care nurses across the United States were surveyed to ascertain the frequency and significance of the various elements of their practice.
Through an extensive review and evaluation process, the knowledge, skills and abilities crucial to critical care nursing were defined using the AACN Synergy Model for Patient Care as an organizing framework. CCRN certification exams are based on these skills and abilities and the knowledge required to perform them. CCRN certification is achieved by those acute and critical care nurses who pass a CCRN exam in neonatal, pediatric and/or adult critical care nursing. CCRN certification denotes to the public those practitioners who possess a distinct and clearly defined body of knowledge called critical care nursing.
CCRN® is a registered service mark of AACN Certification Corporation and denotes certification in critical care nursing as granted by AACN Certification Corporation. Registered nurses who have not achieved CCRN certification status, whose CCRN status has lapsed or who have chosen Inactive status are not authorized to use the CCRN credential.
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